BECOM 2 Exam 2 – 2020

Session 38 – Cardiac Histology

 

1. Which of the following locations is the start of the lymphatic system?

  1. The Heart

  2. The Right Lymphatic Duct

  3. The Thoracic Duct

  4. The Lymphatic Capillaries 

  5. The Lymph Nodes

 

2. Which of the following is a defining and unique characteristic of the endocardium?

  1. Loose Connective Tissue

  2. Cardiac Muscle Tissue

  3. Purkinje Fiber

  4. Unilocular Fat Cells

  5. Simple Squamous Cells

 

3. Which of the following is a defining and unique characteristic of the epicardium?

  1. Loose Connective Tissue

  2. Cardiac Muscle Tissue

  3. Purkinje Fiber

  4. Unilocular Fat Cells

  5. Simple Squamous Cells

 

4. In which of the following way is cardiac muscle tissue different from skeletal muscle tissue?

  1. Cardiac muscle tissue has a triad while skeletal muscle has a triad

  2. Cardiac muscle tissue is connected by gap junctions while skeletal muscle is not

  3. Cardiac muscle tissue has multiple nuclei while skeletal muscle has a single nuclei

  4. Cardiac muscle tissue is striated while skeletal muscle is not

  5. Cardiac muscle tissue depends entirely on exogenous calcium while skeletal muscle does not

 

5. Which of the following are found in the lateral portion of intercalated disks ?

  1. Zonula Adherens 

  2. Zonula Occludins

  3. Macula Adherens 

  4. Desmosomes 

  5. Gap Junctions

 

6. Which of the following would expect to find only in long lived cells such as cardiac cells and neurons?

  1. Lipofuscin Granules 

  2. Increased mitochondria concentrations

  3. T Tubules

  4. Abundant intercellular connections

  5. Increased exogenous lipid accumulation

 

7. After being shocked by lightening a patient is rushed to the emergency room and it is reveled that there was damage to the upper portion of the R atria. Which of the following structures in the conductance system of the heart is most likely affected?

  1. SA Node

  2. AV Node

  3. Bundle of His

  4. Right and Left Bundle Branches

  5. Purkinje Fibers

 

8. Which of the following is a visible characteristic useful in identifying veins in histological pictures?

  1. A round lumen

  2. Simple squamous epithelium in the tunica intima 

  3. A lack of valves

  4. A thick tunica media

  5. A thick tunica externa

 

9. In which type of blood vessels would you find the largest total cross sectional area?

  1. Elastic Arteries

  2. Muscular Arteries

  3. Arterioles 

  4. Capillaries 

  5. Venules 

  6. Medium Veins

  7. Large Veins

 

10. In which type of blood vessels would you find the lowest pressure?

  1. Elastic Arteries

  2. Muscular Arteries

  3. Arterioles 

  4. Capillaries 

  5. Venules 

  6. Medium Veins

  7. Large Veins

 

11. In which type of blood vessels would you find the most muscle proportion?

  1. Elastic Arteries

  2. Muscular Arteries

  3. Arterioles 

  4. Capillaries 

  5. Venules 

  6. Medium Veins

  7. Large Veins

 

Session 39 – Heart Development I

 

12. In the development of the single large-lumen umbilical vein connected to the ductus arteriosus in the liver from the two paired umbilical veins, which of the following correctly describes the normal course of development?

  1. Distal part of left umbilical vein and proximal part of right umbilical vein is obliterated, then the proximal part of the left umbilical vein is obliterated while the distal part of the right umbilical vein increases in size

  2. Distal parts of both umbilical veins are obliterated, then the proximal part of the right umbilical vein is obliterated while the proximal part of the left umbilical vein increases in size

  3. Distal parts of both umbilical veins are obliterated, then the proximal part of the left umbilical vein is obliterated while the proximal part of the right umbilical vein increases in size

  4. Proximal parts of both umbilical veins are obliterated, then the distal part of the left umbilical vein is obliterated while the distal part of the right umbilical vein increases in size

  5. Proximal parts of both umbilical veins are obliterated, then the distal part of the right umbilical vein is obliterated while the distal part of the left umbilical vein increases in size

 

13. Which process of vein transformation (from embryo to adult) is correctly described for the normal human circulatory development?

 

  1. An anastomosis between the left and right anterior cardinal veins forms the left brachiocephalic vein

  2. The left anterior cardinal vein forms the superior vena cava

  3. The right posterior cardinal vein forms the inferior vena cava

  4. The right vitelline vein forms the azygous vein

  5. The umbilical veins form the portal vein

 

14. Which of the following correctly identifies the vein and blood supply it receives?

 

  1. Anterior and posterior cardinal veins, from common cardinal veins

  2. Anterior cardinal veins, from placenta

  3. Posterior cardinal veins, from cephalad region of fetus

  4. Umbilical veins, from caudal region of fetus

  5. Vitelline veins, from yolk sac

 

15. Which of the following cardinal veins is normally obliterated completely (no longer persists past the development of the embryo)?

 

  1. Distal section of the left subcardinal vein

  2. Distal section of the right supracardinal vein

  3. Proximal section of the left subcardinal vein

  4. Proximal section of the right subcardinal vein

  5. Proximal section of the right supracardinal vein

 

16. Which of the following correctly describes the sections of the tubular heart  (after the fusion of the heart tubes around week three), in the order through which blood would flow?

 

  1. Bulbus cordis, sinus venosus, primordial atrium, ventricle, truncus arteriosus

  2. Sinus venosus, primordial atrium, bulbus cordis, ventricle, truncus arteriosus

  3. Sinus venosus, primordial atrium, ventricle, bulbus cordis, truncus arteriosus

  4. Truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, ventricle, primordial atrium, sinus venosus

  5. Truncus arteriosus, ventricle, bulbus cordis, primordial atrium, sinus venosus

 

Session 40 – Heart Development II

 

17. The coronary sinus results from which embryological structure?

 

  1. Left anterior cardinal vein

  2. Left sinus horn

  3. Left vitelline vein

  4. Right sinus horn

  5. Right vitelline vein

 

18. The foramen secundum allows continued shunting of oxygenated blood from the right atrium to the left atrium prior to birth. It forms at the end of the fourth week as a result of which process?

 

  1. The apoptotic loss of cells in the central region of the septum primum

  2. The apoptotic loss of cells in the central region of the septum secundum

  3. The approaching endocardial cushions towards each other

  4. The final crescentic free edge of the septum primum as it expands towards the endocardial cushions

  5. The final crescentic free edge of the septum secundum as it expands towards the endocardial cushions

 

19. During your OB/GYN rotation, an infant is born cyanotic due to a heart defect. Which heart disorders can you immediately rule out as not being a possible exclusive diagnosis?

 

  1. Atresia of aortic valve

  2. Persistent truncus arteriosus

  3. Probe patency of foramen ovale

  4. Tetralogy of Fallot

  5. Tricuspid atresia

 

20. Which of the following cardiac alterations is consistent for the diagnosis of Tetralogy of Fallot?

  1. Aortic infundibular stenosis

  2. Hypotrophy of right ventricular wall

  3. Interventricular septal defect

  4. Overriding pulmonary trunk arising from septal defect

  5. Patent foramen ovale

 

22. Your OB/GYN attending informs you that the cyanotic newborn developed its conotruncal septum via a straight course. What is the most likely diagnosis of the newborn?

  1. Persistent truncus arteriosus

  2. Tetralogy of Fallot

  3. Transposition of the great vessels

  4. Tricuspid atresia

  5. Ventricular septal defect

Session 41 – Cardiac Electrophysiology I

 

23. Noncontractile cells are capable of autorhythmicity, which of the following is associated with a small bundle of specialized cardiac cells at the base of the right atrium near the septum?

  1. Sinoatrial node

  2. Atrioventricular node

  3. Bundle of His

  4. Purkinje fibers

  5. Bundle of Hers

 

24. A patient presents with a resting heart rate of 60, patient is not in the world’s best shape so you suspect that which autorhythmic tissue is responsible for the rate?

  1. SA node

  2. AV node

  3. Bundle of His

  4. Purkinje

  5. Bundle of Hers

 

25. Which of the following is the term for the subsidiary pacemaker in the AV firing in response to a long SA pause?

  1. Ectopic Heart rhythm

  2. Alternate pacemaker disorder

  3. Escape junctional beat

  4. SA node deletion

  5. AV node deletion

 

26. Which of the following is a reason for delaying action potential at the AV node?

  1. Required to allow for the symmetrical contraction of the ventricle 

  2. Allows complete atrial filling

  3. Allows aortic valve to close 

  4. Ensures atrial contraction before ventricular contraction

  5. Allows for Sodium to build up for a faster contraction

 

27. Which of the following is characteristic of pacemaker potential?

  1. Stable membrane potential 

  2. Hypopolarization due to potassium efflux

  3. Sodium influx prevents excessive hyperpolarization

  4. Opening of Fast-Na channels is responsible for depolarization

  5. Opening of Calcium channels repolarize the membrane

 

28. El-hefe really stressed the importance of which channel in maintaining autorhythmicity of pacemaker potential?

  1. Funny Na+ channels

  2. Fast Ca++ channels

  3. Voltage gated Na+ channels

  4. Fast Na+ channels

  5. NA+/K+ pump

 

29. Which Chronotropic agent is correctly matched with its receptor and influence on the heart?

  1. NE; Beta 2; Increase HR

  2. Ach; M1; Decrease HR

  3. NE; M1; Decrease HR

  4. Ach; M2; Increase HR

  5. NE; Beta 1; Increase HR

 

30. What is the purpose of cardiac contractile cells exhibiting a prolonged positive phase accompanied by a prolonged period of contraction?

  1. Allows for complete ventricular filling

  2. Ensures adequate ejection time

  3. Allows for Atrial filling

  4. Allows for Stronger contraction

  5. Ensures that the heart has rhythm

Session 42 – Cardiac Electrophysiology II

 

31. Which of the following is a result of hyperkalemia as it relates to a cardiac action potential?

  1. Increased membrane potential

  2. Decreased membrane potential

  3. Activation of fast sodium channels

  4. Increased phase 0 slope

  5. Increased phase 3 slope

 

32. Entry through which primary ion/channel pump is responsible for the larger release of calcium during a cardiac action potential?

  1. DHP

  2. Na+/Ca++ exchanger

  3. RyR

  4. SERCA

  5. Calcium Leak Channels

 

33. A decreased amount of ATP will result in which of the following scenarios?

  1. Prolonged plateau phase

  2. Increased refractory period

  3. Decreased phase 2

  4. Decreased probability of arrhythmias

  5. Activation of fast sodium channels

 

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of early afterdepolarization?

  1. Occurs in phase 3 or 4

  2. Tachycardia

  3. Reduced calcium removal

  4. Bradycardia

  5. Short QT syndrome

 

35. Sympathetic activation of the protein Phospholamban results in what two events?

  1. Phosphorylation; increased calcium SR uptake

  2. Phosphorylation; decreased calcium SR uptake

  3. Dephosphorylation; increased calcium SR uptake

  4. Dephosphorylation; decreased calcium SR uptake

Session 43 – Electrocardiogram

 

36. Which part of an ECG using Lead II constitutes the depolarization of the heart?

  1. P wave and T wave

  2. P wave and QRS complex

  3. P wave and S wave

  4. T wave and QRS complex

  5. Only P wave

 

37. Which tissue in the heart conducts the cardiac impulse the fastest?

  1. SA Node

  2. Junctional Tissue

  3. Purkinje Fibers

  4. Ventricular Myocardium

  5. Specialized Atrial Fibers

 

38. What might you expect to see on a Lead II ECG when someone has failure of the SA node?

  1. A wider T wave because the cardiac tissue needs more time to repolarize.

  2. An absent T wave because the cardiac tissue does not need to repolarize.

  3. No change because the signal will be propagated by the AV node.

  4. Narrower R-R intervals because the heart would speed up to compensate for the lack of signal from the SA node.

  5. A large downward S wave.

 

39. What degree is the vector pointing in a Lead II ECG?

  1. -30

  2. -150

  3. 0

  4. 60

  5. 120

 

40. What degree is the vector pointing in an aVL ECG?

  1. -30

  2. -150

  3. 0

  4. 60

  5. 120

 

41. How would you determine the Mean Electrical Axis of the heart?

  1. Add the vectors in the heart during depolarization together and divide by 4

  2. Add the vectors in the heart during repolarization together and divide by 4

  3. Add the vectors in the heart during depolarization together

  4. Add the vectors in the heart during repolarization together

  5. Add the vectors in the heart during depolarization and repolarization together

 

42. What would be found on an ECG in someone with an atrial flutter?

  1. Fibrillating waves

  2. Waves with a saw-tooth appearance

  3. Uniform prolonged PR interval

  4. An irregularly irregular rhythm

  5. Complete heart block

 

43. You receive an ECG of your patient Stan Osis and see that his P-R interval keeps increasing and suddenly it loses the QRS signal and restarts, you believe Mr. Osis is suffering from which type of AV conduction block?

  1. First Degree

  2. Second Degree Type I

  3. Second Degree Type II

  4. Third Degree

  5. Bundle Branch Block

 

Session 44 – Cardiac Cycle I

 

44. Which of the following situations is an attribute of Preload?

  1. Preload is independent of venous return

  2. An increase in preload diminishes the force of contraction

  3. Preload is the initial stretching of cardiomyocytes prior to contraction

  4. Preload is unrelated to maximal ventricular filling

  5. Atrioventricular valve stenosis would increase preload

 

45. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of Afterload?

 

  1. The pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole.

  2. Afterload is proportional to the mean arterial pressure. 

  3. Aortic valve stenosis will cause an increase in LV afterload.

  4. Aortic valve regurgitation will cause an increase in LV afterload 

  5. Systemic HTN will cause an increase in LV afterload.

 

46. Identify the correct statement as it applies to Wiggers diagram?

  1. Isovolumetric contraction of the LV occurs when ventricular volume is at its lowest.

  2. During Isovolumetric relaxation, closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves gives rise to the 2nd heart sound, “dub”.

  3. The R-S phase during the QRS complex signals rapid ejection of blood from the LV through aortic semilunar valve. 

  4. At the end of Isovolumetric relaxation, the AV valve opens and atrial contraction initiates ventricular filling. 

  5. During the end of the ventricular ejection phase, LV pressure dips below that of aortic pressure resulting in semilunar valve closing and entry into isovolumetric relaxation.

 

47. Identify the correct statement as it applies to Wiggers diagram?

  1. AV valve opening precedes the ejection phase of the left ventricle as blood is rapidly ejected from the left ventricle. 

  2. A greater aortic pressure compared to left ventricular pressure results in AV valve closing leading to isovolumetric relaxation. 

  3. During Isovolumetric relaxation, the brief increase in aortic pressure results from the backflow of systemic circulation against the aortic valve. 

  4. Left ventricular volume increases from Isovolumetric contraction to Isovolumetric relaxation. 

  5. Left ventricular volume decreases from Isovolumetric relaxation to Isovolumetric contraction.

 

48. You’re attending wants you to calculate the stroke volume of your tachycardic patient In order to facilitate his request, you correctly….?

  1. Subtract the EDV from the ESV

  2. Subtract the SV from the EDV

  3. Divide the SV from the EDV

  4. Subtract the ESV from the EDV

  5. Add the EDV to the ESV

 

49. Your attending asks you to auscultate a classic aortic valve stenosis on your patient. Where do you place your stethoscope? Don’t embarrass yourself…

  1. L 2nd intercostal space

  2. R 3rd intercostal space

  3. R 2nd intercostal space

  4. L 3rd intercostal space

  5. L 5th intercostal space

 

Session 45 – Cardiac Cycle II

 

50. Mike recently had his annual checkup where his doctor discovered a murmur that occurred right before the usual first heart “lub” Which of the following would generate this abnormal sound?

  1. Aortic stenosis

  2. A leaky mitral valve

  3. Severe anemia

  4. Atrophy of the Left ventricle

  5. Hypertrophy of the Left ventricle

 

51. Which of the following would cause a Systolic murmur?

  1. Regurgitation of the semilunar valve

  2. Heart Failure causing an atrial kick

  3. Ventricular septal defect

  4. A pulse that beats right before the murmur is heard

  5. A pulse that beats right after the murmur is heard

 

52. Which of the following is seen during the C arterial pressure wave?

  1. Bulging of the closed AV valves into the atrium

  2. Venous blood pooling behind closed AV valves

  3. AV valve opens, ventricles relax

  4. Blood flows from the atria to the ventricle

  5. Isovolumetric relaxation

 

53. While on your cardiology rotation, your attending tried to stump you by asking what condition the above image is indicating with the red lines?

  1. Bicuspid stenosis

  2. Tricuspid stenosis

  3. Atrial fibrillation

  4. Atrial flutter

  5. Pulsus alternans

 

54. Which of the following would be indicative of aortic stenosis?

  1. Elevated systolic pressure and normal diastolic pressure

  2. Elevated systolic pressure and suppressed aortic valve closure

  3. Depressed diastolic pressure and slow rise in arterial pressure

  4. Depressed diastolic pressure and depressed systolic pressure

  5. Depressed systolic pressure  and slow rise in arterial pressure

Session 46 – Cardiac Output

 

55. While performing the Valsalva maneuver the right atrial pressure is increased. In what way does this affect cardiac output?

  1. Venous return is decreased; cardiac output is increased

  2. Afterload is increased; cardiac output is reduced

  3. Preload is reduced; cardiac output is reduced

  4. Preload is increased; cardiac output is increased

  5. Afterload is increased; cardiac output is increased

 

56. Cardiac scarring results in a loss of starling adaptation due to…

  1. Decreased afterload

  2. Decreased recoil

  3. Decreased preload

  4. Decreased compliance

  5. Decreased tension

 

57. The administration of cardiac glycosides can have what effect on cardiac output?

  1. Increased Preload

  2. Increased End Systolic Volume

  3. Increased Stroke Volume

  4. Increased Heart Rate

  5. Increased End Diastolic Volume

 

58. While investigating a patient’s decreased stroke volume you start looking for a reason why. What could be that reason?

  1. Increased Heart Rate

  2. Increased Venous Return

  3. Increased Contractility

  4. Increased End Diastolic Volume

  5. Decrease End Systolic Volume

 

59. How does exercise manage increase cardiac output in spite of an increased heart rate? Exercise causes an….

  1. Increase in preload, decrease in contractility, and decrease in afterload

  2. Decrease in preload, contractility, and afterload

  3. Increase in preload, contractility, and afterload

  4. Decrease in preload, decrease in contractility and increase in afterload

  5. Increase in preload, increase in contractility, and decrease in afterload

 

Session 47 – Hemodynamics and Capillary Circulation – Garrett

 

60. Which of the following has the greatest influence on the resistance of a blood vessel?

  1. Pressure

  2. Length

  3. Viscosity

  4. Radius

  5. Flow

 

61. Which of the following is the major determinant to the direction of blood flow?

  1. Resistance

  2. Pressure difference

  3. Radius

  4. Conductance

  5. Viscosity

 

62. Which of the following determinants of viscosity is most drastically and directly affected by anemia?

  1. Hematocrit

  2. Fibrinogen

  3. Velocity

  4. Temperature

  5. Radius

 

63. Which form of resistance is where the sum of the parts is less than the smallest individual resistance?

  1. Antiseries

  2. Series

  3. Parallel

  4. Antiparallel

  5. Straight

 

64. If total cardiac out put is 5000 mL/min with a TPR of 0.02 mmHg/mL/min and left renal blood flow is 500 mL/min with a left renal arterial pressure of 100 mmHg and left renal venous pressure of 10 mmHg, what is the resistance of the left kidney?

  1. 0.02 mmHg/mL/min

  2. 0.20 mmHg/mL/min

  3. 50 mL/min/mmHg

  4. 0.18 mmHg/mL/min

  5. 5.55 mL/min/mmHg

 

65. At which point or location in the vessel is the velocity of the blood flow the highest?

  1. Towards the venous end

  2. As it approaches the capillaries 

  3. In the center of the vessel

  4. Where it approaches a sharp turn

  5. Toward the vessel walls

 

66. Which of the following would NOT result in turbulent blood flow?

  1. Blood flow is too rapid

  2. Blood moving through capillary beds

  3. Blood flow through an obstruction

  4. Blood flow making a sharp turn

  5. Blood flow through a rough surface

 

67. While doing research looking at various vessels throughout the body, your preceptor mentions that a certain vessel has a Reynold’s number of 3500. What does this tell you about the blood flow?

  1. It will be laminar

  2. It is passing through a normal open valve

  3. There is an increased likelihood of turbulence 

  4. It is probably passing through a vessel with a small diameter

  5. It will definitely be turbulent flow

 

68. Filtration is most likely to happen in which of the following locations in a capillary?

  1. At the venous end

  2. Where the interstitial fluid pressure is the highest 

  3. In the middle

  4. Where the Plasma colloid osmotic pressure is the highest

  5. At the arterial end

 

69. What is the net filtration pressure if the capillary hydrostatic pressure is 35 mmHg, the capillary colloid osmotic pressure is 20 mmHg, the interstitial hydrostatic pressure is 12 mmHg and the interstitial colloid osmotic pressure is 9 mmHg?

  1. 18 mmHg

  2. -12 mmHg

  3. 12 mmHg

  4. -18 mmHg

  5. 34 mmHg

Session 48 – Blood Pressure Regulation

 

70. Math is fun, given a systolic pressure of 144 and a diastolic pressure 99, calculate the Mean Arterial Pressure (assume all pressures in mmHg)?

  1. 129

  2. 114

  3. 93.33

  4. 120

  5. 45

 

71. Which of the following causes an elevation of systolic blood pressure?

  1. Decrease in Stroke Volume

  2. Decrease in Ejection Velocity

  3. Decrease in Arterial resistance

  4. Decreased Preload

  5. Decrease in Heart Rate

 

72. Which of the following statements is true regarding diastolic blood pressure (DBP)?

  1. It is unaffected by resistance

  2. An increase in Stroke volume will decrease DBP

  3. A decrease in compliance of the aorta decreases DBP

  4. DBP is a result of the ejection through the aorta

  5. An increase in heart rate lowers DBP

 

73. An 85 yo patient comes to your office for an annual checkup, which of the following can you expect as a result decreased compliance due to his age?

  1. Systolic hypotension

  2. Decrease Afterload

  3. Decrease Systolic volume

  4. Arterial Stiffening

  5. Decrease TPR

 

74. More Math, Calculate Cardiac output given the following values: TPR of 2 mmHg/L/min, Bp of 120/80? Units left out for difficulty 

  1. 46.7

  2. 50

  3. 186.6

  4. 200

  5. 120

 

75. Patient presents with a rare clinical abnormality of the sympathetic nervous stimulation of Beta 2 receptors, which of the following actions of autonomic innervations is damaged?

  1. Heart Rate contractility

  2. Kidney Renin Secretion

  3. Adrenal Medulla secretion

  4. Blood vessel vasodilation

  5. Kidney Constricting Arterioles

 

76. Which of the Following is not a long term control of Blood pressure?

  1. RAAS 

  2. ANP

  3. Hypothalamic Mechanisms

  4. Supramedullary Neural Mechanism

  5. Renal Mechanisms

 

77. Which of the following is accurate regarding the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System?

  1. Granular cells produce angiotensin II

  2. ACE converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

  3. Liver constantly produces angiotensinogen

  4. Angiotensin II is the inactivated form

  5. The purpose of the System is to decrease blood pressure

 

78. Atrial Natriuretic peptide is secreted in response to increased blood volume. Which of the following is not directly targeted due to its release?

  1. Hypothalamus 

  2. Thalamus

  3. Kidney

  4. Adrenal Cortex

  5. Medulla oblongata

 

79. A patient presents with a blood pressure drop below 60 mmHg, which neural control mechanism was just activated (specific to below 60)?

  1. Carotid and Aortic Chemoreceptors

  2. Atrial and Pulmonary Artery Reflexes

  3. CNS ischemic response

  4. Arterial Baroreceptor Reflex

  5. Bainbridge Reflex

Session 49 – Coronary Circulation

 

80. Which of the following is not a metabolic coronary vasodilator?

  1. Oxygen

  2. CO2

  3. Guanine nucleotides

  4. Adenosine

  5. Adenine nucleotides

 

81. Administration of an ACE inhibitor will have which of the following effect?

  1. Vasoconstriction 

  2. Increased GFR 

  3. Higher risk of myocardial infarction 

  4. vasodilation 

  5. Increased concentration of Angiotensin II

 

82. Normal coronary flow in a resting human being is closest to which value?

  1. 25 ml/min 

  2. 225 ml/min 

  3. 2,225 ml/min 

  4. 2.25 L/min 

  5. 22.5 L/min

 

83. Which of the following results in the greatest increase in coronary blood flow?

  1. Low pressure, small radius 

  2. Low pressure, large radius 

  3. High pressure, small radius 

  4. High pressure, large radius

 

84. Which layer experiences the highest degree of systolic vascular compression?

  1. Fibrous pericardium 

  2. Serous pericardium 

  3. Epicardium 

  4. Myocardium 

  5. Endocardium

Session 50 – Genetic Disorders of the Cardiovascular System

 

85. What inheritance pattern does Vascular Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome exhibit?

  1. Autosomal Dominant

  2. Autosomal Recessive

  3. X-Linked Dominant

  4. X-Linked Recessive

  5. None, it is a sporadic mutation

 

86. Why is congestive heart failure a result of Marfan Syndrome?

  1. There is an excess of fibrillin in the heart muscle causing the heart to stretch extra increasing the preload

  2. Tricuspid regurgitation results in right ventricular hypertrophy causing CHF

  3. Aortic regurgitation results in a hypertrophic left ventricle causing dilated cardiomyopathy leading to CHF

  4. SA node ceases to fire causing bradycardia leading to CHF

  5. Syncope causes sudden cardiac arrest which shows CHF upon postmortem autopsy.

 

87. Which of the following disorders is referred to as a channelopathy?

  1. Marfan Syndrome

  2. Vascular Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

  3. Cardiac-Valvular Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

  4. Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy

  5. Brugada Syndrome

 

88. What is typically seen on an EKG of someone with Brugada Syndrome?

  1. Long QT interval on a V2 Lead

  2. Normal QRS complex width and amplitude on all leads

  3. Atrial Flutter

  4. ST segment elevation on Lead III

  5. Deep S waves on a V1 Lead

 

89. Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy causes a loss of ______.

  1. Left Ventricular epicardium

  2. Left Ventricular myocardium

  3. Right Ventricular myocardium

  4. Right Ventricular nodes

  5. Complete Right Atrium

Session 54 – Histology of the Respiratory System

 

90. During your rotation in pathology, you and your peer review a cross sectional diagram of an alveolar network of cells to prep for your day of lung histology. Your peer identifies several alveolar pores and inquires to you about their function. You correctly explain to him that…

  1. Alveolar pores function as a thoroughfare for dust cells to clear alveolar debri.

  2. Alveolar pores serve as conduits for pulmonary capillaries to perfuse lung alveoli.

  3. Alveolar pores function as integrated connections for surfactant to bathe alveoli.

  4. Alveolar pores allow for the concerted passage of air between alveoli during breathing.

  5. Alveolar pores are the ducts between alveoli that allow basal cells to differentiate and ascend as Type I pneumocytes.

 

91. Your patient presents to you with stabbing pain in their left flank that came about during an evening run. They deny any history of cigarette use, vaping, or smoking marijuana. Spirometry tests are normal for age and weight. Patient works in an office and denies exposure to airborne irritants. Radiographic imaging is negative for pneumothorax but depicts inflamed tissue in the serosa surrounding the left lung with no fluid accumulation. Patient claims dehydration and exacerbation of symptoms with deep rapid breaths during exercise. Given these symptoms, you preemptively expect the diagnosis to be:

  1. Pleural effusion

  2. Bronchial pneumonia

  3. Pleurisy

  4. Emphysema

  5. Asthma

 

92. A 67 year old male presents to you with shortness of breath. They claim a history of smoking cigarettes: 1 pack per day for 25 years with cessation 17 years ago. You take a lung biopsy, and pathology confirms an 8mm invasive cancer of the patient’s left bronchiole. The diagnosis is most likely:

  1. Adenocarcinoma in situ

  2. Invasive adenocarcinoma

  3. Squamous cell carcinoma in situ

  4. Cystic fibrosis

  5. Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma

 

93. A 53 year old physically fit female presents to your clinic with dyspnea. She claims that symptoms began when she would go hiking and have progressively become worse to where she is struggling to breathe at rest. She claims a history of cigarette smoking: ½ a pack per day for 10 years with cessation 23 years ago. She has slight cyanosis in her fingertips and lips, and states that she “just can’t catch her breath.” Lung biopsy shows excessive dilation and enlargement of bronchioles with pulmonary and alveolar cell loss. You’re diagnosis is:

  1. Mesothelioma

  2. Extensive adenocarcinoma

  3. Emphysema

  4. Dilated squamous cell carcinoma

  5. Small lung cell carcinoma

 

94. A 23 year old female presents to your clinic with a declining loss of smell and taste. She is a professional UFC fighter and claims several concussions and multiple nasal fractures. Radiographic imaging displays an intact cribriform plate, but your nasal endoscopic investigation reveals severely xerotic and erythematous olfactory epithelia. Knowing that olfactory transduction requires dissolving odorant molecules for smell detection, you suspect an issue with what key player in the patient’s olfactory epithelium?

  1. Pseudostratified columnar cells

  2. Type II Pneumocytes

  3. Irregular Hyaline Cartilage Plates

  4. Lamina Propria

  5. Bowman’s Glands

Session 55 – Lung Volumes

 

95. Paul comes into your office because he has had a cough that just won’t go away. He claims that he has been “coughing up junk” for the past month and he thought it was just a cold, but now he has started to see blood in his phlegm. You suspect COPD. Which of the following would you expect to hear and why?

  1. Wheezing on both inspiration and expiration due to an irritation in the lungs collapsing the airways

  2. Wheezing on expiration because of a lack of surfactant in the lung causing irritation with maximum forced exhale due to his feeling like he cannot breathe

  3. Wheezing on inspiration because of a lack of surfactant in the lung causing irritation with maximum forced inhalation due to his feeling like he cannot breathe 

  4. Wheezing on expiration because of a decreased diameter causing the respiratory system to collapse on an already inflamed area

  5. Wheezing on inspiration because of a decreased diameter causing the respiratory system to collapse on an already inflamed area

 

96. Quinton was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The initial volume of his lung was 5.2 L and the pressure in his lungs was 12 mmHg. A spirometer showed that his lung volume has fallen to 2.6 L. What is the new pressure in his lungs?

  1. 6 mmHg

  2. 12 mmHg

  3. 24 mmHg

  4. 31 mmHg

  5. 18 mmHg

 

97. Robert has emphysema. He is unable to forcibly exhale and instead takes breaths that go above his tidal volume to the maximum capacity his lungs have to inhale to compensate for his constant feeling like he cannot breathe. Your preceptor is in an exceptionally grumpy mood and rapid fires off questions one of which is the calculation to tell the measurement of his breaths? Thinking all the way back to your first year as a medical student, you tell him which of the following?

  1. IRV+ TV

  2. IRV+ ERV

  3. ERV+RV

  4. VC+RV

  5. ERV+ TV

 

98. For your summer research project, you are comparing the residual volume in the lungs of rats that were exposed to second-hand smoke from cigarettes vs marijuanna. After 7 minutes the concentration of nitrogen in 100ml is 5% nitrogen, what would the normal residual volume be?

  1. 4.5 ml

  2. 5 ml

  3. 5.5 ml

  4. 6 ml

  5. 6.25 ml

P1(0.8)=0.05(100ml)  

 

99. Which of the following would not decrease lung compliance?

  1. Emphysema

  2. Pulmonary fibrosis

  3. Pneumonia

  4. Asthma

  5. Aging

 

Session 56 – Mechanics of Ventilation I

 

100. An infant is born premature and is experiencing acute respiratory distress. What is the most likely cause?

  1. The infant’s lungs are malformed

  2. The infant lacks surfactant

  3. The infant has not learned how to breathe properly

  4. The infant is anemic and cannot properly ferry O2 throughout its body

  5. The infant was born with only one lung

 

101. How does surfactant actually work to ensure our alveoli do not collapse on a daily basis?

  1. It reinforces the alveoli making them more rigid

  2. It gets rid of dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC) found in the alveoli

  3. It increases the amount of lecithin and sphingomyelin found in the alveoli

  4. It reduces surface tension at the gas-liquid interface

  5. It helps to redirect incoming negative pressure towards larger alveoli

 

102. How will a loss of surfactant lead to pulmonary edema?

  1. DPPC pulls in more fluid from capillaries in the lung

  2. An increase in interstitial hydrostatic pressure due to alveoli collapse will pull fluid from capillaries in the lung

  3. An decrease in interstitial hydrostatic pressure due to alveoli collapse will pull fluid from capillaries in the lung

  4. Surfactant directly inhibits the influx of fluid

  5. An increase in interstitial pressure will pull fluid from capillaries in the lung

 

103. While performing an Expiratory Volume test on a patient, what ratio (FEV1/FVC) will corresponds with its respiratory disease?

  1. 92%; Obstructive Respiratory Disease

  2. 80%; Obstructive Respiratory Disease

  3. 45%; Restrictive Respiratory Disease

  4. 50%; Obstructive Respiratory Disease

  5. 67%; Restrictive Respiratory Disease

 

104. During which phase of breathing would you expect the transairway pressure to become negative and collapse?

  1. Beginning of inspiration

  2. End of inspiration

  3. Forced expiration

  4. End expiration

  5. Before beginning of next inspiration

Session 57 – Mechanics of Ventilation II

 

105. Which of the following measurements is often considered as better or more sensitive than the FEV1?

  1. PEF

  2. FEF50

  3. FEF25-75

  4. FVC

  5. FIF25-75

 

106. Which of the following spirometry graphs below is typical of an individual with COPD?


 

107. Which of the following would cause a decrease max inspiratory flow?

  1. Destruction of elastin fibers

  2. Tumor in a major airway

  3. Weak signaling from the pneumotaxic center

  4. Destruction of collagen fibers

  5. Snorkeling

 

108. Which of the following values would be increased for someone with an obstructive lung disease but decreased for someone with a restrictive lung disease?

  1. FEV1/FVC

  2. FEF25-75

  3. Slope of FV curve

  4. PEF

  5. TLC

 

109. Major differences in FVC and SVC is indicative of which of the following?

  1. Air trapping

  2. Large airway collapse

  3. Restrictive lung diseases

  4. pneumothorax

  5. Situs inversus

 

110. Which of the following would NOT constitute as dead space?

  1. Trachea

  2. Segmental bronchi

  3. The middle of over expanded alveoli in an individual with emphysema 

  4. Respiratory bronchioles

  5. Hypoxic alveoli due to a pulmonary embolism

 

111. What is the volume of a persons dead space if they have an aveolar ventilation of 6000 mL/min, a respiration rate (RR) of 16 and a standard value tidal volume?

  1. 0 mL

  2. 100 mL

  3. 125 mL

  4. 150 mL

  5. 500 mL

 

112. In the graph above, which depicts assessing anatomic dead space, what is the cause of the increase in N2 concentration in phase IV?

  1. N2 gas has a lower diffusion constant than O2 and thus takes longer to empty from the lungs

  2. Phase IV is due to air trapping, so after the individual stops exhaling so forcefully the nitrogen can escape

  3. The individual forcefully exhales, emptying the lungs of N2 in additional areas

  4. Nitrogen gas analyzers often take time to adjust to changing concentrations so this is a normal delay

  5. The individual has been snorkeling in shallow water because apparently that makes a difference

 

113. What is the dead space volume of an individual with a PECO2 of 30 mmHg, a PACO2 of 40 mmHg, and a normal tidal volume capacity?

  1. 100 mL

  2. 125 mL

  3. 150 mL

  4. 175 mL

  5. 200 mL

 

114. Which of the following is the closest value of the alveolar ventilation of an individual with a PaCO2 of 40 mmHg and a VECO2 of 210 mL/min?

  1. 3.5 L/min

  2. 4.0 L/min

  3. 4.5 L/min

  4. 5.0 L/min

  5. 5.5 L/min

 

115. What would the appoximate alveolar partial pressure of oxygen be if an individual is at sea level with an arterial CO2 value of 40 mmHg?

  1. 80 mmHg

  2. 90 mmHg

  3. 100 mmHg

  4. 110 mmHg

  5. 120 mmHg

Session 58 – Gas Exchange

 

116. Which of the following changes would result in the associated change in volume of gas diffusion (Fick’s)?

  1. Increase in pressure ; decrease volume

  2. Increase in molecular weight ; increased volume

  3. Decrease solubility ; decreased volume

  4. Decrease thickness ; decreased Volume

  5. Increase surface area ; decreased volume

 

117. Which of the following has the lowest solubility coefficient?

  1. Oxygen

  2. Carbon Dioxide

  3. Carbon Monoxide

  4. Nitrogen

  5. Helium

 

118. Which of the following has the lowest diffusion coefficient?

  1. O2

  2. CO2

  3. CO

  4. N2

  5. He

 

119. Exercising decreases the time spent in the capillaries.Iif the time drops to 0.2 seconds, which of the following is the lease affected in reaching diffusion equilibrium?

  1. N2O

  2. O2

  3. CO

  4. CO2

  5. All are significantly altered.

 

120. In which of the following situations would Alveolar Po2 not equal blood Po2?

  1. No hemoglobin

  2. Partially Saturated Hemoglobin

  3. Fully Saturated Hemoglobin 

  4. Fully saturated Fetal Hemoglobin

  5. Fully saturated Sickle Hemoglobin

 

121. Which of the following Concentrations is lowest in dead space air?

  1. O2

  2. CO2

  3. H2O

  4. N2

  5. None of the Above

Session 59 – Gas Transport

 

122. Which of the following would result in the greatest increase of tissue carbon dioxide pressure?

  1. Decreased blood flow, increased cellular metabolic rate

  2. Decreased blood flow, decreased cellular metabolic rate

  3. Increased blood flow, increased cellular metabolic rate

  4. Increased blood flow, decreased cellular metabolic rate

  5. hyperventilation

 

123. Which scenario causes a shift to the left in an oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?

  1. Increased hydrogen concentration

  2. Carbon monoxide poisoning

  3. Hypoventilation

  4. Increased BPG

  5. Increased temperature

 

124. Which correlates to the oxygen arterial end and carbon dioxide venous end of the pulmonary capillary?

  1. PO2 = 104, PCO2 = 45

  2. PO2 = 104, PCO2 = 40

  3. PO2 = 40, PCO2 = 45

  4. PO2 = 40, PCO2 = 40

  5. PO2 =25, PCO2 = 50

 

125. High altitude will cause a decrease in all of the following but which quantity?

  1. Oxygen pressure of alveoli 

  2. Oxygen pressure of arteries 

  3. Oxygen-Hemoglobin binding % 

  4. Oxygen content 

  5. Alveolar-artery oxygen pressure gradient

 

126. 2,3-BPG displays which of the following characteristics?

  1. Increased levels due to hypothyroidism 

  2. High affinity for HbF 

  3. Decreased levels due to chronic anemia 

  4. Left shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissocation curve 

  5. Affinity for deoxygenated Hb > affinity for oxygenated Hb

 

127. Calculate the total blood oxygen content with an arterial oxygen pressure of 90mmHg and an oxygen-hemoglobin saturation percentage of 85%. Assume normal hemoglobin and dissolved oxygen levels.

  1. 0.1735 O2/ml

  2. 1.735 O2/ml

  3. 173.5 O2/ml

  4. 1735 O2/ml 

  5. 17.35 O2/ml

 

128. Match the following form of oxygen and carbon dioxide with its relative percentage in blood.

  1. Dissolved oxygen = 97%, dissolved CO2 = 23%

  2. Dissolved oxygen = 3%, dissolved CO2 = 70%

  3. Oxygen-Hb = 97%, bicarbonate = 7%

  4. Oxygen-Hb = 97%, bicarbonate = 70%

  5. Oxygen-Hb = 97%, dissolved CO2 = 23%

 

Session 60 – Neuroregulation of Ventilation – Bryce

 

129. Which part of the medullary respiratory center is not active during quiet breathing?

  1. Dorsal Respiratory Group

  2. Apneustic Center

  3. Pre-Botzinger Complex

  4. Ventral Respiratory Group

  5. Pneumotaxic Center

 

130. Paul Monary is having rapid-shallow breathing due to pain when he inhales deeply. Which pulmonary receptor is responsible for this symptom?

  1. Pulmonary Stretch Receptors

  2. Irritant Receptors

  3. J Receptors

  4. Chest Wall Proprioceptors

  5. Merkel Receptors

 

131. An unconscious male is brought to the ER. Upon a blood analysis his pH is elevated and you see his QT interval is prolonged on an ECG. Upon further examination his facial muscles contract when CN VII is tapped and you notice his hand curls in when taking his blood pressure with the cuff. Your patient is most likely experiencing  ________ from _______ due to hyperventilation?

  1. Respiratory Alkalosis; Hypocalcemia

  2. Respiratory Alkalosis; Hypokalemia

  3. Respiratory Acidosis; Hypocalcemia

  4. Respiratory Acidosis; Hypokalemia

  5. Respiratory Acidosis; Hyperkalemia

 

132. Which of the following directly stimulates the chemosensitive area to increase ventilation?

  1. CO2

  2. NO

  3. O2

  4. H+

  5. H2CO3

 

133. What is the correct order for the afferent nerves of the peripheral chemoreceptors that detect changes in O2?

  1. Aortic Arch → Carotid Bodies → CN IX → Nucleus Tract Solitarius

  2. Aortic Arch → Vagus Nerve → Hering Nerves  → Nucleus Tract Solitarius

  3. Carotid Bodies → Vagus Nerve → Nucleus Tract Solitarius

  4. Carotid Bodies → Hering Nerves → Vagus Nerve → Nucleus Tract Solitarius

  5. Carotid Bodies → Hering Nerves → CN IX → Nucleus Tract Solitarius

Session 61 – Pulmonary Circulation

 

134. Which of the following statements is NOT true as it applies to Pulmonary Circulation?

  1.  A high number of pulmonary vessels in parallel help keep the pulmonary vascular resistance very low.

  2. An increase in cardiac output results in a decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance.

  3. Pulmonary capillary resistance increases with decreased cardiac output.

  4. Decreased pulmonary venous pressure results in decreased pulmonary vascular resistance.

  5. Pulmonary capillary recruitment and and distension keep resistance low.

 

135. During Tidal Volume breathing…?

  1. The apex region of the lung acts like a shunt.

  2. Gravity causes the blood of the pulmonary circulation to be equally distributed.

  3. Blood would rather go towards the apex of the lung.

  4. The base of the lung is the least compliant part of the lung

  5. The base of the lung is the most ventilated part of the lung. 

 

136. Which of the following correctly characterizes one of the three functional zones of the lung?

  1. Zone 1 resembles a shunt.

  2. Zone 2: Pv > Pa > PA

  3. Zone 3 resembles a dead space

  4. Zone 1: PA > Pv > Pa

  5. Zone 3: Pa > Pv > PA

 

137. Your patient presents with a collapsed left lung. Identify the correct physiological attribute that applies to his condition?

  1. The Intrapleural pressure has become more positive.

  2. Hypoxia-induced vasoconstriction would shunt blood flow towards the apex of the collapsed lung near the respiratory bronchioles.

  3. A decrease in surface tension would pull fluid from the capillaries into the interstitial space resulting in pulmonary edema.

  4. Surfactant loss as a result of lung collapse would increase the distensibility of the collapsed lung.

  5. Pulmonary resistance would be decreased as a result of increased venous pressure.

 

138. Identify the correct statement as it applies to Pulmonary Circulation?

  1. ↑ V/Q results in a dead space

  2. During inspiration, there is increased pressure placed on the extra-alveolar vessels.

  3. RV and TLC represent the lung volumes where there is the least pulmonary vascular resistance.

  4. During expiration, there is decreased pressure placed on the extra-alveolar vessels.

  5. Decreased pressure is placed on the alveolar vessels during inspiration.

Session 62 – Respiratory Integration I – Ben slide 1-15

 

139. When treating a hypoxic patient, which of the following conditions can directly result from giving the hypoxic patient oxygen?

 

  1. Metabolic acidosis, due to exhausted compensation by the kidneys

  2. Metabolic alkalosis, due to kidneys dumping bicarbonate into the blood

  3. No effect on blood pH, due to bicarbonate buffer system in the blood

  4. Respiratory acidosis, due to accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood

  5. Respiratory alkalosis, due to reduction of carbon dioxide in the blood

     

 

140. In the case of your airplane decompressing, oxygen masks will fall from the ceiling. Passengers are instructed to breathe normally, despite stressing circumstances, to avoid which of the following conditions?

 

  1. Metabolic acidosis

  2. Metabolic alkalosis

  3. Respiratory acidosis

  4. Respiratory alkalosis

  5. Using up all the shared oxygen

     

 

141. Which of the following correctly describes the events incurred during the body’s adaptation to altitude?

 

  1. The ambient air at altitude contains a decreased partial pressure of oxygen and increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide

  2. The body will enact hyperventilation initially to increase the oxygen content of the blood, then need to compensate for decreased carbon dioxide levels by relatively hypoventilating

  3. The initial compensation for the hypoxic conditions is the dumping of bicarbonate into the blood by the kidneys

  4. The initial compensation for the hypoxic conditions is hypoventilating to reduce the hypercapnic state

  5. The production of erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell production results in a increase in arterial carbon dioxide

 

142. When a swimmer holds their breath to dive below the surface, shallow water blackout can occur by which of the following mechanisms?

 

  1. Hyperventilating prior to diving results in hyperoxia which is toxic to the retinas, affecting visual proprioception

  2. Hyperventilating prior to diving results in hypocapnia and reduced sensitivity to hypoxia in an earlier onset hypoxic state

  3. Hypoventilating prior to diving results in an earlier onset hypoxic state

  4. Hypoventilating prior to diving results in hypercapnia and reduced sensitivity to hypoxia

  5. Hypoventilating prior to diving results in hypocapnia and reduced sensitivity to hypoxia

     

 

143. You and five friends plan a snorkeling trip. Unfortunately, each one of your friends has one of the following conditions. Risk of shallow water blackout is the greatest increased risk for your friend with which of the following conditions?

 

  1. Asthma

  2. COPD

  3. Dextrocardia

  4. Lung transplant

  5. Pulmonary segmental resection

     

 

144. The first rule of scuba diving is to always keep breathing. The second rule of scuba diving is to follow your bubbles if you get lost. Rule number two helps save divers who have become afflicted with which of the following at depth?

 

  1. Air embolisms

  2. Decompression sickness

  3. Increased air viscosity

  4. Nitrogen narcosis

  5. Seaweed entanglement

     

 

145.  A patient in the ER arrives with complaints of soreness in her joints following a rapid ascent to the surface from a depth of 100′ when she noticed that her air gauge read 500psi. She also states that due to the rapid ascent, she was unable to make a required decompression safety stop at 15′. You formulate that she is experiencing decompression sickness (also known as the bends) as a result which is characterized by accumulation of which blood gas in the joints?

 

  1. Carbon dioxide

  2. Carbon monoxide

  3. Helium

  4. Nitrogen

  5. Oxygen

Session 63 – Respiratory Integration II

 

146. Liz is an experienced diver, but recently when she was taking pictures of the coral reef off the coast of the Bahamas, she got overly excited and came up from the water really quickly causing the bends (decompression sickness). Which of the following would she be least likely to experience?

  1. Disorientation

  2. Pain in the joints

  3. Increased N2 content

  4. Increased O2 content

  5. Air embolism

 

147. In moderate exercise, which way does the O2 dissociation curve shift?

  1. Left because of the increased  need for O2

  2. Right because of the decreased 2,3BPG

  3. Left because of the hypoxic drive

  4. Right because of the lactic acid

  5. Left because of the decrease in pH

 

148. Which of the following is reduced in strenuous exercise?

  1. O2 uptake

  2. Lactate

  3. Lactic Acid

  4. Cardiac output

  5. All of the above

  6. None of the above

 

149. Which of the following is not a direct reason for oxygen debt?

  1. Increase in body temp

  2. Epinephrine levels up

  3. Increase in Hydrogen

  4. Breathing heavier

  5. Increased cortisol

Session 64 – Genetic Disorders of the Respiratory System

 

150. In Cystic Fibrosis, what vitamin deficiencies would you expect to see?

  1. A, C, D

  2. D, E, K

  3. A, B, C

  4. A, E, K

  5. B, K, E

 

151. A patient presenting with liver and lung damage resulting from neutrophil elastase will most likely have a mutation in which gene?

  1. FLCN

  2. SERPINA1

  3. SLC34A2

  4. IFT80

  5. DYNC2H1

 

152. A patient with a known mutation in the FLCN gene will have a similar inheritance pattern to which disorder? 

  1. Marfan’s Syndrome

  2. Alpha-1-Antitrypsin

  3. Hemophilia 

  4. Xeroderma Pigmentosum 

  5. Tay Sachs

 

153. In what cells are you likely to find the type IIb sodium-phosphate transporter that are coded by the SLC34A2 gene?

  1. Type I alveolar cells

  2. Type II alveolar cells

  3. Type III alveolar cells

  4. Goblet cells

  5. Basket cells

 

154. What mutation is responsible for approximately 50% of patients who present with short ribs, narrow chest, and small pelvis?

  1. FLCN

  2. SERPINA1

  3. CFTR

  4. SLC34A2

  5. DYNC2H1