Exam 5

  1. Transection of the anterolateral tract results in which of the following?
    1. Loss of proprioception
    2. Spastic paralysis
    3. Flaccid paralysis
    4. Loss of pain and temperature sensation
    5. Areflexia


  2. Which of the following special senses conducts its generated action potential over the longest distance? 
    1. Hearing
    2. Photoreception
    3. Gustation
    4. Touch
    5. Olfaction


  3. Menthol gel is recommended to relieve minor aches and pains associated with simple backache, arthritis, and strains. Which of the following best explains the mechanism for how this product works?
    1. Activates TRPM8
    2. Activates TRPV1
    3. Activates TRPV5
    4. Activates TRPM6
    5. Activates TRPM5


  4. Which of the following is considered to be a phasic receptor?
    1. Joint receptor
    2. Muscle Spindles
    3. Baroreceptors
    4. Golgi tendon organs
    5. Pacinian corpuscles


  5. Which growth factor drives scar formation?
    1. VEGF
    2. PDGF
    3. HGF
    4. TGF-B
    5. FGF


  6. A 72 year old patient presents to the Emergency Department via ambulance following a motor vehicle accident. The patient states that he is in renal failure and has been getting dialysis two days a week for the last 3 months. He was in a car accident attempting to get to the dialysis center and is currently in a substantial amount of pain from windshield glass that became lodged in his shoulder. Blood chemistry analysis reveals that the patient is in metabolic acidosis, most likely due to his renal failure. The attending physician instructs you to use a shot of Lidocaine (a local anesthetic) to numb his shoulder and remove the glass, while he attempts to correct the acidosis. Which of the following should you expect from the patient?
    1. Decreased response to the lidocaine due to the metabolic acidosis and inability for the drug to enter the neurons
    2. Increased response to the lidocaine due to the metabolic acidosis and inability for the drug to enter the neurons
    3. Increased response to the lidocaine due to the metabolic acidosis and increased ability for the drug to enter the neurons
    4. Decreased response to the lidocaine due to the metabolic acidosis and increased ability for the drug to enter the neurons
    5. No change in response to the lidocaine


  7. Capsaicin is an active component of chili peppers and an irritant for mammals, including humans. It produces a sensation of burning in any tissue with which it comes into contact. Capsaicin activates which of the following receptors?
    1. TRPM8
    2. TRPV5
    3. TRPV1
    4. TRPM6
    5. TRPM5


  8. Angel S. is undergoing massage therapy following a crossfit injury to her erector spinae muscles after trying to deadlift 300 lbs. While the injury is painful, the massage helps substantially. Which of the following best explains the mechanisms for how massage can relieve pain?
    1. It stimulates Aα fibers, causing suppression of pain signals
    2. It stimulates Aβ fibers, causing suppression of pain signals
    3. It stimulates Aγ fibers, causing suppression of pain signals
    4. It stimulates Aδ fibers, causing suppression of pain signals
    5. It stimulates C-polymodal fibers, causing suppression of pain signals


  9. An older male in your clinic states they have been having severe diarrhea and red, itchy skin for several weeks. The patient’s daughter is present for the visit and states that he has been increasingly forgetful lately, and she is worried he has started drinking again. What is a likely vitamin deficiency that could lead to his specific symptoms?
    1. B1
    2. B2
    3. B3
    4. B6
    5. B9


  10. Which of the following is the leading cause of blindness, worldwide?
    1. Age related macular degeneration
    2. Diabetic Retinopathy
    3. Cataracts
    4. Glaucoma
    5. Trauma


  11. A patient presents to the clinic complaining of reduced vision. Upon examination, you realize that the patient has reduced vision in the right visual field of the left eye and the left visual field of the right eye. Which of the following locations is the most probable location of a lesion that would result in these visual deficits?
    1. Optic chiasm
    2. Optic tract
    3. Lateral geniculate nucleus
    4. Geniculocalcarine tract
    5. Visual cortex of the cerebrum


  12. A patient has a lesion affecting the upper portion of the right visual cortex. Which of the following explains how this person’s vision is likely to be altered?
    1. The patient would have reduced vision in the lower right field in both eyes
    2. The patient would have reduced vision in the lower left field in both eyes
    3. The patient would have reduced vision in the upper right field in both eyes
    4. The patient would have reduced vision in the lower right field in the left eye but the lower left field of the right eye
    5. The patient would have reduced vision in the upper left field in both eyes


  13. Which of the following correctly lists the path of light through the eye?
    1. Cornea → Aqueous Humor → Lens → Vitreous Humor → Retina
    2. Cornea → Vitreous Humor → Lens → Aqueous Humor → Retina
    3. Lens → Aqueous Humor → Cornea → Vitreous Humor → Retina
    4. Lens → Vitreous Humor → Cornea → Aqueous Humor → Retina
    5. Sclera → Aqueous Humor → Lens → Vitreous Humor → Retina


  14. The majority of light refraction involved in vision is performed by which of the following structures?
    1. Sclera
    2. Lens
    3. Cornea
    4. Retina
    5. Aqueous Humor


  15. Atropine is a medication used to treat certain types of nerve agent and pesticide poisonings. It works by blocking ACh and preventing parasympathetic activation. Which of the following is a potential side effect of Atropine?
    1. Cycloplegia
    2. Bradycardia
    3. Presbyopia
    4. Miosis
    5. Ptosis


  16. Which of the following structures is responsible for secretion of aqueous humor?
    1. Ciliary body
    2. Iris
    3. Lens
    4. Cornea
    5. Canal of schlemm


  17. Which of the following extraocular muscles is involved in the accommodation reflex?
    1. Lateral rectus
    2. Medial rectus
    3. Inferior rectus
    4. Superior rectus
    5. Superior oblique

  18. You are visiting family during your much needed summer break when your family decides to go out to eat. However, your grandfather forgot his reading glasses and now can’t read the menu. Which of the following conditions is most likely preventing your grandfather from reading the menu without reading glasses?
    1. Myopia
    2. Hypermetropia
    3. Astigmatism
    4. Presbyopia
    5. Cycloplegia


  19. You are shadowing an opthamologist when a patient presents complaining that she is specifically having trouble driving at night. She mentions that her vision doesn’t seem to be as bad during the day. Which of the following explains this phenomenon?
    1. Dilation of the pupil during the day reduces distortion of the light and allows for higher visual acuity
    2. Constriction of the pupil during the day reduces distortion of the light and allows for higher visual acuity
    3. Constriction of the pupil at night increases distortion of the light, decreasing visual acuity
    4. This patient most likely has closed-angle glaucoma
    5. This patient most likely has open-angle glaucoma


  20. Inability to read in dim light is due to which of the following?
    1. High amount of convergence at the fovea centralis  
    2. Lack of rods at the temporal and nasal portions of the retina
    3. Lack of cones at the fovea centralis
    4. Lack of rods at the fovea centralis
    5. Lack of cones at the temporal and nasal portions of the retina


  21. Which of the following explains blindness as a potential side effect of Viagra?
    1. Viagra inhibits PDE5, preventing hyperpolarization of the cones
    2. Viagra inhibits PDE5, prevenging depolarization of the cones
    3. Viagra inhibits PDE5, preventing hyperpolarization of the rods
    4. Viagra inhibits PDE5, prevenging depolarization of the rods
    5. Viagra inhibits transducin


  22. Rods are sensitive to all colors, EXCEPT which of the following?
    1. Blue
    2. Green
    3. Yellow
    4. Purple
    5. Red


  23. Which of the following substances is important in establishing circadian rhythm?
    1. Rhodopsin
    2. Melanopsin
    3. Photopsin
    4. Lumirhodopsin
    5. Metarhodopsin II


  24. [Part 1 of 2] A medical student smells pizza in a nearby room where a meeting for a club he has never heard of is getting underway. Naturally, he ducks into the room and grabs a few slices of pizza. He wastes no time and bites into the hot pie, burning his tongue. Which set of papillae, if burned, would leave his sense of taste diminished?
    1. Circumvallate
    2. Fungiform
    3. Filiform
    4. A & B
    5. A & C


  25. [Part 2 of 2] If the pizza burns were isolated to the tip of the tongue, the papillae effected would lose their ability to send gustatory afferent information to the brain via which nerve?
    1. CN V
    2. CN VII
    3. CN IX
    4. CN X
    5. CN XI


  26. It’s been a rough week, and you decide to let loose with a couple friends at The Residents. You have a few drinks, and begin spinning in a chair mid-conversation. You begin to feel dizzy and upon stopping, it takes a few seconds for the room to stop spinning. Which structure contributes to this feeling?
    1. Uterus
    2. Ciliary body
    3. Cupula
    4. Utricle’s macula
    5. Saccule’s macula


  27. A patient arrives with the complaint of becoming car sick. Upon further history taking, the patient tells you this happens mostly when the car is accelerating forward. Upon physical exam, the patient does not have complications with rotating their head or moving up and down in a chair. Which structure is responsible for the patient’s presentation?
    1. Uterus
    2. Ciliary body
    3. Cupula
    4. Utricle’s macula
    5. Saccule’s macula


  28. You are performing a Romberg’s test on a patient following a complaint of altered gait. The patient stands, but even with their eyes open, they are not able to stand steady. Which part of the CNS would you expect to find a lesion?
    1. Vestibulocerebellum
    2. Dorsal column medial lemniscal tract
    3. Medial vestibulospinal tract
    4. Spinothalamic tract
    5. Medial longitudinal fasciculus


  29. Low dose daily aspirin therapy is recommended for people over the age of 50 to prevent heart attack and stroke due to the ability of NSAIDs to inhibit platelet aggregation. Aspirin inhibits which of the following in order to inhibit platelet aggregation?
    1. Prostacyclin (PGI2)
    2. Thromboxane A2
    3. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
    4. A & B
    5. A, B  C


  30. Which of the following coagulation factors is involved in the intrinsic pathway, but not the extrinsic pathway?
    1. X
    2. V
    3. XII
    4. VII
    5. TF


  31. Which of the following is associated with platelet aggregation?
    1. ADP
    2. Extonucleotidase
    3. Adenosine
    4. Tissue Factor Pathway inhibitor
    5. Heparan Sulfate


  32. Which of the following is TRUE regarding glycoprotein receptors located on the surface of platelets?
    1. GP-1b-V-VI binds to free vWF
    2. GP-1a/IIa binds to collagen via vWF
    3. GPIIb/IIIa binds to free fibrinogen
    4. GPIIb/IIIa binds to collagen via vWF
    5. GPIIb/IIIa binds to collagen directly


  33. The dampening of sounds can be accomplished through all of the following structures EXCEPT:
    1. Outer hair cells
    2. Inner hair cells 
    3. Tensor tympani 
    4. Stapedius 


  34. A patient complains with hearing loss that has gotten progressively worse over the past few months. She began working a night shift in the hospital approximately 9 months ago. You perform blood tests, and you find that she has low Vitamin D and she is hypocalcemic. How do you explain to your patient how this could be a contributing factor to her hearing loss?
    1. Low calcium is known to cause hypertonic muscles. The stapedius and tensor tympani are staying contracted, leading to diminished conduction in the ossicles.
    2. Calcium is required for the activation of special proteins, called prestin, which aid in hearing.
    3. Low calcium is causing the membrane potential to be decreased, so the action potentials required for hearing are diminished.
    4. Vitamin D is responsible for the production of proteins that amplify the vibrations on the outer hair cells to the inner hair cell.
    5. Calcium is required for the depolarization of the vagus nerve, which is important in bone conduction in the inner ear.


  35. Aminoglycosides (AGs) are widely used antibiotics because of their low cost and high efficacy against gram-negative bacterial infection. However, AGs are ototoxic, and can lead to deafness when used extensively. Which of the following structures do these drugs damage to cause this effect?
    1. Auditory nerve
    2. Inner hair cells
    3. Outer hair cells
    4. Prestin
    5. Tympanic membrane


  36. Which of the following best explains the function of the stria vascularis?
    1. Maintains K+ levels in the endolymph to allow for fast depolarization
    2. Maintains Na+ levels in the endolymph to decrease speed of depolarization
    3. Maintains Na+ levels in the perilymph to decrease speed of depolarization
    4. Maintains K+ levels in the perilymph to allow for fast depolarization
    5. Maintains K+ levels in the endolymph to decrease speed of depolarization


  37. You are shadowing a neurologist when a 36 year old male patient presents to the clinic following a diagnosis of MS by his primary care doctor. He says that he is able to hear but is having trouble localizing where sounds are coming from. Which structure is most likely involved in this symptom?
    1. Dorsal cochlear nucleus
    2. Posteroventral cochlear nucleus
    3. Medial Geniculate
    4. Auditory cortex
    5. Superior olivary complex  


  38. Which of the following correctly describes how olfactory neurons are stimulated?
    1. Odorants bind GPCRs which leads to opening of voltage gated channels, causing an influx of Na+/Ca2+
    2. Odorants bind to a GPCR which leads to opening of cyclic nucleotide gated channels, causing an outflux of Na+/Ca2+
    3. Odorants bind GPCRs which leads to opening of voltage gated channels, causing an outflux of Na+/Ca2+
    4. Odorants bind to a GPCR which leads to opening of cyclic nucleotide gated channels, causing an influx of Na+/Ca2+
    5. Odorants bind to GPCRs which leads to closing of cyclic nucleotide gated channels, preventing the outflux of Na+/Ca2+


  39. Which of the following are means by which odor fatigue can occur?
    1. Internalization of receptors
    2. Ca++ inhibition of adenylate cyclase & cyclic nucleotide gated channels
    3. Synaptic inhibition by GABA
    4. A & B
    5. A, B, & C


  40. Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is used in the food industry as a flavor enhancer. Which of the following taste sensations is elicited by this substance?
    1. Sweet
    2. Salt
    3. Umami
    4. Sour
    5. Bitter


  41. Which of the following taste sensations is NOT associated with a GPCR?
    1. Sweet
    2. Umami
    3. Sour
    4. Bitter


  42. A patient presents with pelvic pain. She has had bladder stones before, and she believes this is the same presentation. Her pelvic pain has been progressing over the course of 3 days. Which nerves are responsible for the transmission of her pelvic pain to the CNS?
    1. Splanchnic nerves
    2. Pudendal nerves
    3. Cardiac nerves
    4. Inferior hypogastric plexus
    5. Renal nerves


  43. Many chemoreceptors are responsible for relaying information to the CNS to maintain the composition of your arterial blood. Where are these found in the body?
    1. Smooth muscle layer of pulmonary airway
    2. Joint capsule
    3. Epithelia of pulmonary airways
    4. Carotid body
    5. Carotid sinus


  44. Which cortical area is primarily responsible for viscerosensory information?
    1. Inferior ganglion of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerve
    2. Superior ganglion of the vagus nerve
    3. Inferior ganglion of the accessory nerve
    4. Superior ganglion of the glossopharyngeal nerve
    5. Superior ganglion of the accessory nerve


  45. Pictured below is a MRI from a 58-year-old male with a left anterior thalamic infarct involving the anterior nuclei. What findings would you expect to find upon your history and physical examination?
     
    1. Hyperactive
    2. Slurred speech
    3. Clonus
    4. Persistent coma
    5. Facial droop


  46. Following a bilateral vagotomy, which of these do you expect to be present?
    1. Peristaltic reflex
    2. Increased gastric emptying
    3. Increased motility
    4. Absent defecation reflex
    5. Absent peristalsis
       
  47. Orthostatic hypotension can be a side effect of certain antidepressants. What causes this phenomenon?
    1. Lesion of the nucleus ambiguus
    2. Failure of the baroreceptor reflex to detect change in blood pressure
    3. Hyperactivity of the mechanoreceptors
    4. Displaced otoconia
    5. Sudden systemic vasoconstriction caused by sympathetic stimulation


  48. Spinal cord injuries at T6 or above lead to an overall reduction in sympathetic activity initially. With time, the body develops hyperactive sympathetic reflexes, or autonomic dysreflexia. What signs and symptoms do you expect to see in a patient with this diagnosis?
    1. Orthostatic hypotension
    2. Bradycardia
    3. Hypotension
    4. Miosis
    5. Systemic vasoconstriction
  49. You are on an OB/GYN rotation and deliver your first newborn. The newborn fails to have a bowel movement within the first 48 hours. The attending explains to you a condition in which the newborn may have early cessation of nerve development in the bowel. What condition is he referring to?
    1. Huntington’s disease
    2. Hirschsprung disease
    3. Diverticulosis
    4. Crohn’s disease
    5. Inflammatory bowel disease


  50. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei are involved in regulation of circadian rhythm?
    1. Arcuate nucleus
    2. Supraoptic nucleus
    3. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
    4. Ventromedial nucleus
    5. Medial preoptic nucleus

     

  51. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei are involved in secretion of ADH?
    1. Arcuate nucleus
    2. Supraoptic nucleus
    3. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
    4. Ventromedial nucleus
    5. Medial preoptic nucleus

     

  52. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for satiety?
    1. Posterior nuclei
    2. Supraoptic nucleus
    3. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
    4. Ventromedial nucleus
    5. Medial preoptic nucleus

     

  53. Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15 which impacts the development of the hypothalamus. Which of the following is a major symptom of this condition?
    1. Emaciation  
    2. Hypertonia
    3. Tall stature
    4. Chronic hunger  
    5. Insomnia

     

  54. A list of unknown drugs and their respective ED50, TD50 and LD50 are shown below. Which of the following drugs has the most favorable therapeutic window?

    1. Drug A
    2. Drug B
    3. Drug C
    4. Drug D
    5. Drug E


  55. Which of the following is TRUE regarding intravenous drug administration?
    1. It is most suitable for poorly soluble substances
    2. It is the 2nd fastest administration route, behind that of inhalation
    3. The bioavailability of IV drugs are 100%
    4. It is usually more safe than other routes of administration
    5. The majority of drug administered in this manner will undergo first pass metabolism

     

  56. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the Volume of distribution (Vd )?
    1. A low Vd usually correlates with a long half life
    2. A low Vd means that the drug is mostly located in the peripheral compartment
    3. It is the measure of a body’s efficiency in eliminating a drug from the systemic circulation
    4. A high Vd means that the drug is mostly located in the central compartment
    5. It relates the amount of drug in the body to the concentration of drug in the plasma

     

    1. Agonist
    2. Antagonist
    3. Allosteric activator
    4. Allosteric Inhibitor
    5. Non-competitive inhibitor
      Allopurinol is a medication used to prevent gout. It specifically works to reduce uric acid levels by competitively inhibiting the enzyme, Xanthine Oxidase. Which of the following correctly describes its drug-receptor interaction?

  57. An alcohol enema, also known colloquially as butt-chugging, is the act of introducing alcohol into the rectum via the anus (don’t try this at home, kids). This method of alcohol consumption can be dangerous and even deadly because it leads to faster intoxication. Which of the following best explains why this method of alcohol consumption can be more dangerous to an individual?
    1. Rectal administration is associated with a lesser degree of first pass metabolism
    2. Rectal administration is associated with a lower bioavailability than oral administration
    3. Oral administration increases bioavailability making it less toxic
    4. Stomach acid neutralizes alcohol into a less active form
    5. Rectal administration is associated with a higher degree of first pass metabolism
  58. Your patient has a lesion in the left anterior corticospinal tract at the medullary pyramid. Which of the following do you expect to find in your physical exam?
    1. Left sided trunk weakness
    2. Right sided trunk weakness
    3. Left sided arm weakness
    4. Left sided leg weakness
    5. Right sided leg weakness
      (Answer A.  The anterior corticospinal tract does not decussate at the pyramids. It is also responsible for trunk and axial muscles. The lateral corticospinal tract decussates at the pyramids and is responsible for the limbs and digits. B164-5: Upper & Lower Motor Neurons I & II.)
  • Which would you expect to have the most muscle fibers?
    1. Sternocleidomastoid
    2. Medial rectus muscle
    3. Quadriceps femoris
    4. Soleus
    5. Biceps


  • What presentation would you find in a patient that has damage to one side of the corticobulbar tract?
    1. Facial muscles would still work bilaterally. There is bilateral innervation.
    2. One side of the face would have signs of weakness due to unilateral innervation by CN XII.
    3. The lower portion of the face would show signs of weakness due to unilateral innervation by CN VII.
    4. One of the lower quadrants of the face would show signs of weakness due to unilateral innervation by CN VII.
    5. Facial sensation would be diminished on one side of the face due to unilateral innervation by CN V.

     

  • The inability to voluntarily chew comes from damage to which tract and cranial nerve?
    1. Anterior corticospinal tract – CN VII
    2. Lateral Corticospinal tract – CN IX, X
    3. Corticobulbar tract – CN V
    4. Lateral corticospinal tract – CN V
    5. Corticobulbar tract – CN V

     

  • Which response best describes the effect of stimulating golgi tendon organs after active contraction?
    1. Activation of agonist muscles and inhibition of antagonist muscles via Ib afferent signaling
    2. Inhibition of agonist muscles and activation of antagonist muscles via Ib afferent signaling
    3. Activation of agonist muscles and inhibition of antagonist muscles via Ia afferent signaling
    4. Inhibition of agonist muscles and activation of antagonist  muscles via Ia afferent signaling
    5. Activation of type II interneurons for controlled, delayed response

     

  • In order to maintain tone in response to stretch, muscle spindles must continuously resensitize via the action of which class of neurons?
    1. Ia
    2. Ib
    3. II
    4. 𝛂
    5. 𝞬

     

  • If a patient is specifically having difficulty copying the movements of others, quickly reacting to external stimuli, and executing pre-determined unilateral and bilateral movements, they most likely have diminished function of which area of the brain?
    1. Primary motor area
    2. Premotor area
    3. Supplementary motor area
    4. Sigulate motor area
    5. Superior motor area

     

  • A student who has recently had a stroke has decreased movement of their lower facial muscles. They are frustrated that when they attempt to smile, they are unable to do so. However, when they listen to jokes from their hilarious Egyption professor’s recorded lectures, they show a perfect ability to smile. What is likely the cause of this discrepancy?
    1. Lower motor neuron lesion of ipsilateral CN VII
    2. Upper motor neuron lesion to contralateral primary motor cortex
    3. Upper motor neuron lesion to ipsilateral primary motor cortex
    4. Upper motor neuron lesion to contralateral cingulate motor cortex
    5. Upper motor neuron lesion to ipsilateral cingulate motor cortex

     

  • Which of the following is the least common drug-receptor bond?
    1. Hydrogen bonding
    2. Van der Waals Forces
    3. Hydrophobic bonds
    4. Covalent bonds
    5. Electrostatic forces

     

  • A list of unknown drugs with their respective KD are listed below. Based on this information, which of the following drugs has the highest potency?

    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. E

     

  • You are on rotations in the Emergency Department when a patient presents following a heroine overdose. The paramedics have administered Narcan (Naloxone) to completely reverse the effects of the overdose. When the patient comes around, they tell you that their near death experience has given them the push they need to stop using. Due to their extensive history of drug abuse, you decide to administer Buprenorphine to slowly wean them off of heroine. Which of the following best describes the effect of Buprenorphine?
    1. Full agonist
    2. Full antagonist
    3. Partial antagonist
    4. Partial agonist
    5. Inverse agonist

     

  • [Part 1 of 2] In the graph shown below, the purple line most likely represents which of the following?

    1. Full antagonist
    2. Partial agonist
    3. Full agonist
    4. Partial antagonist
    5. Reverse agonist

     

  • [Part 2 of 2] Which line most likely represents a reverse agonist?

    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. None of the above

     

  • [Part 1 of 2] The black line on the graph below represents drug X, an agonist to a specific receptor. The y axis represents the effect of drug X and the x-axis represents the concentration of drug X. Which of the following lines represents the response when drug X is added with a noncompetitive antagonist?

    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. None of the above

     

  • [Part 2 of 2] How did the addition of a noncompetitive antagonist change the EC50 and KD of drug X?
    1. Decreased EC50; Decreased KD
    2. Increased EC50; Increased KD
    3. No change EC50; Increased KD
    4. No change EC50; No change KD
    5. Increased EC50; Decreased KD

     

  • An experiment is performed with a drug labelled “A.” Drug A is combined with increasingly higher concentrations of a noncompetitive antagonist and the responses are shown below on the graph. A1 shows drug A with no antagonist present, and A5 represents drug A with the highest concentration of antagonist present. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon?

    1. Drug A can reach full response at a concentration that does not occupy all available receptors
    2. The noncompetitive antagonist must be partially competitive
    3. Drug A must occupy all available receptors to reach full effect
    4. The noncompetitive antagonist is a partial agonist
    5. This same effect would occur with a competitive antagonist

     

  • Glucocorticoids increase blood glucose levels, whereas insulin decreases blood glucose levels. Both drugs work through entirely different mechanisms (i.e. don’t use the same receptors). Which of the following terms best describes glucocorticoids interaction with insulin?
    1. Chemical antagonism
    2. Physiological (Functional) Antagonism
    3. Allosteric Modulation
    4. Partial agonist
    5. Full agonist
      (Answer B. B174: Pharmacodynamics (Dose Response).)

    •  

  • In a recently concluded clinical study, Drug Y was tested for its effect on blood glucose levels (BGL) in diabetic rats. The rats received 10 mg/kg of body weight of undisclosed substance Z prior to the administration of Drug Y and the percent decreases in BGL were recorded (shown below). Substance Z is most likely acting on the receptors as which of the following?
       
    1. Competitive antagonist 
    2. Non-competitive antagonist
    3. Partial agonist
    4. Inverse agonist
    5. Full agonist


  • In a recently concluded clinical study, a new anesthetic drug was tested for ED50 and LD50. The results are shown in the chart below. Which of the following is closest to the therapeutic index (TI)?

    1. 0.86
    2. 0.07
    3. 1.17
    4. 0.06
    5. 1.56