BECOM 1 Question Bank

Chemistry Review

 Which of the following compounds would be the most reduced?

  1. Carbon dioxide

  2. Alkene

  3. Aldehyde

  4. Carboxylic Acid

  5. Alkane

Which of the following compounds would you expect to elevated in a diabetic patient who has run out of their insulin?

  1. Oxalic Acid

  2. Acetic Acid

  3. Acetoacetic acid

  4. Pyruvate

  5. Lactate


 A pharmacy intern accidentally made a sodium chloride solution that was 4.5% instead of 0.45%. Luckily, the error was caught before it was administered. What would have happened to the patient if the solution was given?

  1. The RBCs would lyse

  2. The RBCs would shrink

  3. The kidney would swell

  4. The kidney would shrink

  5. Both B and C

When given the rate of a reaction is incredibly high (fast), what can you assume about the ratio of products to reactants (equilibrium)?

  1. The ratio will favor the reactants

  2. The ratio will favor the products

  3. The ratio will equal between the reactants and products

  4. You are unable to assume the ratio

  5. “Assume” makes an ASS out of U and ME

 

Overview of Metabolism

 Which of the following enzymes is involved in the glycolytic production of substrate level ATP?

  1. Phosphoglycerate Phosphatase
  2. Phosphoglycerate Kinase
  3. 1-3,Bisphosphoglycerate Transferase
  4. 1-3,Bisphosphoglycerate Mutase
  5. Both A and B

 

Which of the following would most likely be used to feed directly into the TCA cycle?

  1. Pyruvate
  2. Isoleucine
  3. Sucrose
  4. DHAP
  5. 1,3-BPG

Which of the following enzymes or structures participates in anabolic reactions?

  1. Lysosomes

  2. Proteosomes

  3. Glycogen phosphorylase

  4. Salivary Amylase

  5. Fatty acid synthesis

In order for a reduction reaction to occur, what else is absolutely necessary?

  1. There must be a sufficient amount of NAD+ available 

  2. Additional bonds are made to Hydrogen

  3. Bonds are lost to O, N, or S

  4. An oxidation reaction  must also occur

  5. Oxygen must be available

While visiting a very poor 3rd world country you suspect some of the children in the village are suffering from Kwashiorkor. Which of the following is correct when describing this condition?

  1. They are receiving adequate calories but are deficient in protein

  2. They are receiving adequate calories but are deficient in carbohydrates

  3. They are receiving inadequate calories with respect to both protein and carbohydrates

  4. They are receiving inadequate calories but not in respect to protein

  5. They are receiving inadequate calories but not in respect to lipids

Infants are generally able to stabilize their body temperatures which helps keep everything else in check, but when they crash, they crash fast. What property allows them to thermoregulate so efficiently?

  1. UCP-1 in white fat

  2. UCP-1 in brown fat

  3. DNP in white fat

  4. DNP in brown fat.

  5. Both B and D

A patient comes to you asking about a new weight loss drug that utilizes dinitrophenol. She says that people can lose up to 25 pounds in a week. What should you tell this patient?

  1. They shouldn’t take it because losing that much weight that quickly could send their body into shock

  2. They should take it, but be aware that it would only help them to lose water weight and muscle tone

  3. They shouldn’t take it because it would cause their body to shut down as it fights to make energy

  4. They should take it because it would increase their core body temperature which stimulates weight loss.

  5. They shouldn’t take it because it would increase their hydrogen concentration which would cause their blood to become more acidic sending them into ketoacidosis 

A patient presents with IBS which causes malabsorption of vitamins. They feel tired easily and are unable to even just walk their dog without becoming lethargic. You decide to get a blood draw and urine test of this patient and discover that methylmalonic acid is within normal range but the FIGLU levels are elevated. Which vitamin deficiency are they showing?

  1. Thiamine

  2. Niacin

  3. Folate

  4. Pantothernic

  5. Cobalamin

Which amino acid is most likely to undergo glycosylation?

  1. Threonine

  2. Glycine

  3. Glutamate

  4. Tryptophan

  5. Lysine

Reagan was recently bragging to you about her vegan lifestyle, as vegans often do. You let her know that this is not a sustainable lifestyle without supplementation because in 6 years she will be deficient in which of the following?

  1. Niacin

  2. Pantionic 

  3. Cobalamin

  4. Folate

  5. Thiamin

What levels would you check to see if you were right about Reagan’s deficiency?

  1. Methylmalonic Acid

  2. Serum Albumin

  3. Glucose

  4. Phosphate

  5. Potassium

 

Proteins

When an intracellular protein is tagged for degradation, ubiquitin residues are added to which amino acid?

  1. Serine

  2. Threonine

  3. Tyrosine

  4. Asparagine

  5. Lysine

 

Adding ethanol to a protein would NOT effect which level of protein structure ?

  1. Primary

  2. Secondary

  3. Tertiary

  4. Quaternary 

  5. All of the above

 

After learning about Enbrel/Etanercept you begin to wonder about how the medication is cleared from the body. Since it is an exogenous protein and has to be administered through IV you suspect that it is naturally degraded as other exogenous proteins are. What pathway would that be?

  1. Lysosomal

  2. Proteosome

  3. Conjugated and excreted in the urine

  4. Conjugated and excreted with bile

  5. Converted into glycogen

 

Which of the following amino acids would you expect to be the target of ubiquitination?

  1. Serine

  2. Tyrosine

  3. Theronine

  4. Lysine

  5. Glutamate

Hemoglobin & Myoglobin

The binding of carbon monoxide to hemoglobin tends to shift the conformational equilibrium towards the R state. Assume an individual is exposed to moderate amount of CO, such that one heme site from every hemoglobin molecule contains a bound CO molecule. Will Hb-CO containing one CO molecule bind O2 to the open heme sites tighter or weaker than normal deoxyhemoglobin?

After an individual is subject to an acute acid load, which buffer system is instrumental in dealing with the acute acid load?

  1. Carbonic Acid

  2. Hemoglobin

  3. Phosphate

  4. Protein

  5. Bone

 

Which of the following values is abnormal or out of range?

  1. pH of 7.39

  2. CO2 of 44

  3. HCO3- of 36

  4. O2 of 98

  5. All of the above are in normal range

 

How does the majority of CO2 travel in the blood?

  1. As bicarbonate ion

  2. Bound to hemoglobin

  3. Attached to serum proteins

  4. Dissolved in the plasma

  5. None of the above

Enzymes & Enzyme Kinetics

 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using an enzyme?

  1. Increased reaction rate

  2. Increased product to substrate ratio

  3. Able to perform at different pH ranges

  4. Able to perform at different temperature ranges

  5. Enzyme remains unchanged after each reaction

Which of the following is an example of a coenzyme?

  1. Magnesium

  2. Zinc

  3. Nicotinamide Dinucleotide (NAD)

  4. Biotin

  5. Heme

Which of the following statements is always true in regards to an allosteric regulator?

  1. Always increase activity

  2. Always bind in the active site

  3. Always a non organic compound

  4. Always bind in a place other than the active site

  5. Always decrease activity

Which of the following classes of enzymes would be used in a reaction to turn Methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl CoA?

  1. Hydrolase

  2. Lyase

  3. Transferase

  4. Isomerase 

  5. Ligase

Where is Alzheimer’s believe to start?

  1. Entorhinal Cortex 

  2. Hippocampus

  3. Frontal lobe

  4. Cingulate Gyrus

  5. Cerebellum

Threonine is able to be converted to isoleucine when isoleucine is low. This process uses an enzyme known as threonine deaminase. Isoleucine can then bind to the threonine deaminase when isoleucine levels are higher. This is an example of:

  1. An allosteric enhancer

  2. An allosteric inhibitor

  3. Feed forward allostery

  4. Noncompetitive inhibition

  5. Uncompetitive inhibition

Phosphofructokinase-1 is the enzyme of the committed step in glycolysis. As a committed step, it is often regulated by allosteric regulators. Which of the following molecules functions as a negative feedback allosteric inhibitor of this step?

  1. AMP

  2. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate

  3. Insulin

  4. Glucagon

  5. Citrate

Which of the following enzyme biomarkers of a myocardial infarction (MI) is elevated intially then returns to baseline after a few days and is able to signal another MI event if a second should occur soon after?

  1. Phosphocreatine

  2. CK-BB

  3. CK-MB

  4. CK-MM

  5. Troponin

Xenobiotics are defined as anything foreign taken into the body. This can include drugs, toxins, chemicals, etc. When a xenobiotic is taken in per os (PO) it can be absorbed and taken to the Liver where it can undergo Phase 1 detoxification by cytochrome P450. Which of the following reactions will occur in phase I but not in Phase II?

  1. Oxidation

  2. Sulfation

  3. Glucoronidation

  4. Glutathione Conjugation

  5. Acetylation

The graph above was obtained from an unknown enzyme (Line B) in comparison without the inhibitor (Line A). What kind of inhibitor is it?

  1. Competitive inhibitor

  2. Mixed inhibitor

  3. Uncompetative inhibitor

  4. Irreversible inhibitor

  5. Non-competitive inhibitor

Which of the following chemical reactions should be of primary concern when treating an overdose of Acetaminophen?

  1. Glucuronidation

  2. Sulfation

  3. CYP-Mediated N-Hydroxylation

  4.  GSH Conjugation

  5. N-Carboxylation

 

Carbohydrates

 Fehling’s test is a reaction that detects reducing sugars. Why do we not do Fehling’s test to determine blood glucose levels?

  1. Glucose is not a reducing sugar

  2. Sucrose is the form were interested in

  3. It doesn’t differentiate glucose from others

  4. Only some glucose forms are reducing sugars

  5. It only tells glucose that is stored

Patients with Type II diabetes are unable to regulate their blood sugar as effectively because they do not produce enough insulin, so glucose stays in circulation longer. Exercising can help them to increase their glucose absorption. This is because:

  1. GLUT-4 transporters are expressed more increasing glucose absorption

  2. GLUT-4 transporters are expressed less increasing glucose absorption

  3. GLUT-2 transporters are expressed more increasing glucose absorption

  4. GLUT-2 transporters are expressed less increasing glucose absorption

  5. SGLT is blocked decreasing glucose reabsorption

Glucose can be stored but NOT released from which of the following tissues/organs?

  1. Liver

  2. Adipose

  3. Skeletal Muscle

  4. Pancreas

  5. Brain

A Patient presents to an Urgent Care with abdominal pain, bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea after eating a “tub” of ice cream. Which of the following monosaccharide combinations was this patient unable to break apart?

  1. Glucose and Glucose

  2. Glucose and Lactose

  3. Glucose and Fructose

  4. Glucose and Galactose

  5. Glucose and Maltose

Nucleic Acids

 Which of the following is NOT one of the hallmarks of inflammation?

  1. Fever (Pyror)

  2. Heat (Calor)

  3. Pain (Dolor)

  4. Redness (Rubor)

  5. Swelling (Tumor)

Allopurinol is an incredibly effective suicide inhibitor which is used in the treatment of gouty arthritis. Instead of uric acid patients taking allopurinol will now build up which two compounds that can be recycled?

  1. Xanthine and Guanine

  2. Hypoxanthine and Guanine

  3. Hypoxanthine and Adenine

  4. Adenine and Guanine

  5. Hypoxanthine and Xanthine

Which of the following enzymes is NOT inhibited by a purine nucleotide?

  1. PRPP Synthetase

  2. IMP Dehydrogenase

  3. Xanthine Oxidase

  4. Adenylosuccinate Synthetase

  5. Glutamine Phosphoribosyl Amidotransferase

Patients with Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome often present with gouty arthritis, mental retardation, and compulsive behaviors toward self mutilation of their fingernails and lips. Which of the following enzymes is dysfunctional in this X-linked recessive disorder?

  1. CPS-II

  2. Orotate Phosphoribosyl Transferase

  3. Thymidylate Synthetase

  4. APRT

  5. HGPRT

Lipids & Lipid Metabolism

 Which of the following is considered a Major Component of Dietary Oils and Fats?

  1. Phospholipids

  2. Free Fatty Acids

  3. Vitamins

  4. Triglycerides

  5. Glycerol

 

Esterification is a very important process for the transport of Low Density Lipoproteins. In regards to steroid transport, at what carbon would I expect Esterification to take place?

  1. Carbon 27

  2. Carbon 3

  3. Carbon 7

  4. Carbon 17

  5. Carbon 19

Which Phospholipase would cleave the head off of a membrane phospholipid but leave the phosphate group attached to the glycerol?

  1. PLA1

  2. PLA2

  3. PLC

  4. PLD

  5. None of the above

Which of the following compounds is NOT made from cholesterol?

  1. Testosterone

  2. Primary Bile Acids

  3. Triiodothyronine (T3)

  4. Vitamin D (Cholecalciferol)

  5. Aldosterone

Which of the following conditions could lead to Cholelithiasis?

  1. Excessive bile salt synthesis

  2. High fiber diets

  3. Ingesting exogenous chenodeoxycholic acid

  4. Deficiency in bile salt recycling

  5. Excessive de novo cholesterol synthesis

 

Which of the following would I not expect to find as a product of either the Cyclooxygenase or Lipoxygenase Pathway?

  1. Prostaglandins

  2. Prostacyclins

  3. Thromboxanes

  4. Leukotrienes

  5. All of the above would be products of these pathways

 

Which of the following would I potentially treat an asthmatic patient with?

  1. LTR Agonist

  2. 5 LOR Inhibitor

  3. LTR Promoter

  4. 5-LOX Promoter

  5. None of the Above

Aspirin works by binding their acetyl group to a serine side chain of COX-I. This is:

  1. A competitive inhibition of COX-1 production of thromboxane

  2. An irreversible inhibition of COX-1 inflammatory responses

  3. A competitive inhibition of COX-1 production of leukotrienes

  4. An irreversible inhibition of COX-1 production of leukotrienes

  5. A non-competitive inhibition of COX-1 production of inflammatory responses

Which of the following compounds/activities does NOT affect/influence Acetyl CoA Carboxylase?

  1. Folate (B9)

  2. Citrate

  3. Long-chain fatty acyl CoA

  4. Biotin (B7)

  5. Caloric Intake

Which of the following coenzymes is necessary for almost any anabolic reaction?

  1. NADH

  2. FADH2

  3. NADPH

  4. FADPH2

  5. Cobalamin

A young type 1 diabetic gets pulled over and arrested for a suspected DUI. The officer stated that the driver seemed fuzzy and unable to show normal comprehension. The officer also reported that in close proximity to the driver he smelled a fruity aroma which led him to believe the driver had been drinking. Upon further investigation and  finding out the driver was a Type 1 diabetic, it was discovered the driver was not drunk but in ketoacidosis. Which ketone body produced the fruity aroma the officer was able to smell?

  1. Acetone

  2. Acetoacetate

  3. 3-Hydroxybutyrate

  4. Pyruvate

  5. Acetate

Celecoxib is a COX-II selective inhibitor. It is often given to patients with IBS or other GI issues. Why would it be beneficial to only inhibit COX-II but not COX-I?

  1. COX-II protects the stomach lining

  2. COX-II causes platelet aggregation and thrombus formation

  3. Inhibition of COX-I can cause premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus

  4. COX-I protects the stomach lining 

  5. COX-I causes platelet aggregation and thrombus formation

Biomembranes & Membrane Transport

 Cystic Fibrosis is a disease in which chloride builds up in cells causing patients to have a thick buildup of mucus on the surface of their lungs. This causes compounding issues. CF patients have a mutation in their CFTR. This is usually involved in:

  1. Passive diffusion out of the cell

  2. Passive diffusion into the cell

  3. Facilitated diffusion out of the cell

  4. Facilitated diffusion into the cell

  5. Endocytosis into the cell

Which of the following phospholipids is found in mitochondrial membranes but not in plasma membranes?

  1. Phosphotidylserine

  2. Phosphotidylethanolamine

  3. Phosphotidylcholine

  4. Cardiolipin

  5. Phosphotidylinositol

SGLT is a glucose transporter found in the small intestine and kidneys which takes glucose from a low concentration in the lumen and transports it to a high concentration. What type of transport would SGLT participate in?

  1. Simple Diffusion

  2. Facilitated Diffusion

  3. Primary active transport

  4. Secondary active transport

  5. Endocytosis

Cell Signaling

 Which of the following types of enzyme linked receptors is likely to be permanently active in a rapidly dividing cancer?

  1. Tyrosine kinase receptors

  2. JAK-STAT receptors

  3. Serine-threonine kinase receptors

  4. G Protein Coupled receptors

  5. Nuclear Hormone Receptor

Which of the following signal transduction proteins would I expect to find associated with a Tyrosine-Kinase Receptor?

A.              STAT

B.              Smad

C.              One that has a Ras domain

D.             One that has a SH2 domain

E.              JAK-STAT

 

KCNQ2 is a gene that codes for the expression of a specific calcium channel that produced “M-currents” within our frontal cortex. However, in those diagnosed with the autosomal dominant disorder called “Benign Family Neonatal Convulsions-Type 1 (BFNC-1)”, this gene is mutated. What type of channelopathy could this be classified as?

  1. Transcriptional Channelopathy

  2. Non-Disjunction Channelopathy

  3.  X-Linked Channelopathy

  4.  Recessive Channelopathy

  5.  Genetic Channelopathy

 

Haemopoietic cytokines regulate haemopoietic cell function via specific cell surface receptors.

A particular gene that codes for the expression of these Cytokine receptors can be found on chromosome 5 (a locus that is currently thought to play a role in the development of Leukemia). Which of the following ligands could be directly associated with the receptor that regulates expression of these surface receptors?

  1. Cytokine Dimers

  2. Cytokine Monomers

  3. Growth Factor

  4. Steroid Hormones

  5. Insulin

Haemopoietic cytokines regulate haemopoietic cell function via specific cell surface receptors. A particular gene that codes for the expression of these Cytokine receptors can be found on chromosome 5 (a locus that is currently thought to play a role in the development of Leukemia). Which of the following ligands could be directly associated with the receptor that regulates expression of these surface receptors?

  1. Cytokine Dimers

  2. Cytokine Monomers

  3. Growth Factor

  4. Steroid Hormones

  5. Insulin

 

The medication Viagra (AKA the most profitable mistake in history) works by causing vasodilation in the arterial supply to the erectile tissues of the penis. What enzyme type does viagra inhibit?

  1. Kinase

  2. Phosphodiesterase

  3. Ligase

  4. Oxidoreductase

  5. Hydrolase

Why do type 1 diabetics have to be especially careful when measuring their insulin injections when coupled with exercise?

  1. Exercise will trigger its own release of insulin and the combined amount will lead to hypoglycemia

  2. Exercise will counter the effects of the insulin and lead to hyperglycemia 

  3. Exercise will add additional GLUT4 receptors onto membranes and cause hypoglycemia

  4. Exercise will lead to increased break down of fatty acids triggering ketoacidosis 

  5. Exercise and insulin together will lead to unhealthy weightloss for type 1 diabetics

Which of the following mutation is most likely to lead to cancer development?

  1. Constant trimerization and activation of TNF receptors in non immune cells

  2. Constant dimerization in the lack of insulin in insulin receptors 

  3. Inability to dimerize or autophosphorylate tyrosine kinase receptors

  4. Inability to translocate activate STAT dimers to the nuclease

  5. Constant dimerization and autophosphorylation of tyrosine kinase receptors

Monoclonal antibody developed therapies such as Herceptin (trastuzumab) work in which of the following ways?

  1. Antibodies bind to the receptor making it inactive as well as recruiting immune cells

  2. Antibodies bind to the growth factor and make in impossible to bind and dimerize the receptors

  3. Antibodies will stimulate the B cells and mast cells to release additional cytokines causing the HER2 receptors to be nonfunctional

  4. Antibodies will bind to the receptors and force them to dimerize and trigger their signaling cascade

  5. Antibodies will translocate through the plasma and nuclear membranes and bind directly to the DNA, inhibiting transcription

Sarin gas is an example of which type of inhibitor?

  1. Competitive

  2. Non Competitive 

  3. Un Competitive 

  4. Mixed

  5. Suicide

When checking their blood glucose, a patient discovers that they are low. Which of the following will occur?

  1. Increase glycogen synthesis

  2. Increase fatty acid synthesis

  3. Increase liver glycolysis

  4. Increase triglyceride synthesis

  5. Increase lipolysis

Homeostasis

When a woman is in labor giving birth, there is a cycle of events that occur. The baby’s body pushes against the uterine wall which leads to stretching of the uterus. This causes a release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland which will then induce uterine contractions. These contractions lead to increase stretch and thus increased oxytocin release. This mechanism of action is referred to as which of the following?

  1. Feedback inhibition

  2. Feedforward activation

  3. Return to normal range

  4. Same and Steady

  5. Maintenance of homeostasis

 

 Which physiologist established the principle of “homeostasis”?

  1. Claude Bernard

  2. Jared Diamond

  3. Andrew Huxley

  4. Walter Cannon

  5. Theodor Schwann

 

A patient presents to your clinic and asks if you know of any medications that inhibit Neuropeptide Y. What is the result that this patient is seeking?

  1. Insulin Release

  2. Glucagon Release

  3. Weight Loss

  4. Weight Gain

  5. Tumor Regression

Membrane Potential

 Which of the following would occur with an increase in Na+ leak channels?

  1. The cell would become more negative

  2. The cell would reach threshold faster

  3. The cell would have a greater action potential

  4. The cell would have a longer hyperpolarization stage

  5. The cell would have a longer depolarization stage

Given the above values, what is the equilibrium potential for phosphate?

  1. 79 mV

  2. -79 mV

  3. -116 mV

  4. 36 mV

  5. -36 mV

During which phase is the cell most negative?

  1. Resting potential

  2. Depolarization

  3. Repolarization

  4. Hyperpolarization

  5. Threshold

Which of the following would cause a human neuron cell to return to resting membrane potential?

  1. Sodium rushing into the cell

  2. Sodium rushing out of the cell

  3. Potassium rushing into the cell

  4. Potassium rushing out of the cell

  5. None of the above

Which of the following combinations of membrane potential (Vm) and equilibrium potential (Eion) would produce the driving force that results in a net inward direction of ion flow from the extracellular environment into the cytosol for an anion?

  1. Vm = -90,   Eanion = 86.5

  2. Vm = 60,    Eanion = 75

  3. Vm = -70,   Eanion = -70

  4. Vm = -15,   Eanion = -20

  5. Vm = -20,   Eanion = 15

Which of the following is an anion with a greater extracellular concentration value than its intracellular concentration?

  1. Sodium

  2. Potassium

  3. Chloride

  4. Calcium

  5. Phosphoric Acid

Which equation takes into account the relative permeabilities of the ions when calculating membrane potential?

  1. Potential Energy

  2. Bernard Cannon

  3. Curie Watson

  4. Nernst

  5. Goldman Hodkin Katz

The absolute refractory period is due to which of the following?

  1. Inactivation of voltage gated potassium channels

  2. Inactivation of voltage gated sodium channels

  3. Opening of voltage gated sodium channels

  4. Closing of voltage gated sodium channels

  5. Both B and C

The most important contributor to the resting membrane potential is 

  1. More K+ ion leak channels than that of Na+.

  2. The sodium-potassium pump

  3. The amount of Calcium on the extracellular side of the membrane

  4. The large, negative proteins on the inside of the cell

  5. Open Chloride channels

A potassium ion has an equilibrium potential that matches the membrane potential. What does this mean for the driving force of potassium?

  1. The driving force will become smaller, but will not reach zero. 

  2. The driving force will become larger. 

  3. The driving force will be zero. 

  4. The driving force of potassium is impossible to calculate with this information. 

  5. The driving force will not change. 

 

Action Potential

 

In reference to the diagram above, voltage gated potassium channels are open during which segment(s)?

  1. 3

  2. 4

  3. 5

  4. 6

  5. All of the above

Which of the following is true about how strong stimuli change action potentials?

  1. Strong stimuli decrease the frequency of action potentials

  2. Strong stimuli increase the time between action potentials

  3. Strong stimuli increase the amplitude of the action potentials

  4. Strong stimuli override the absolute refractory period

  5. Strong stimuli override the relative refractory period

Which of the following would increase action potential conduction speed?

  1. Increased oligodendrocyte connections

  2. Continuous Conduction

  3. More abundant Nodes of Ranvier

  4. Decreased axon diameter

  5. Multiple Sclerosis advancement

Which of the following signals would most likely be transmitted the slowest?

  1. Muscle activation

  2. Vibration

  3. Tickle

  4. Deep Pressure

  5. Cold

Action potentials self-propagate in one direction, much like dominoes. This is due to:

  1. The absolute refractory period of the gates behind 

  2. The relative refractory period of the gates behind

  3. The amount of signals firing

  4. The intensity of the action potential

  5. The length of the axon

 The conduction speed of an axon is increased by 

  1. Myelination

  2. Length

  3. Diameter

  4. A and B

  5. A and C 

 

Synaptic Physiology

 Which of the following is the most abundant cell in the nervous system?

  1. Astrocytes

  2. Microglia

  3. Neurons

  4. Oligodendrocytes

  5. Microvessels

Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

  1. Acetylcholine

  2. Glutamate

  3. Gamma aminobutyric acid

  4. Catecholamine

  5. Histamine 

Fred is back to your office for a follow-up after starting an antidepressant last month. He admits that he is still feeling low and that he stopped taking the medication after a week because it wasn’t helping. You tell him that:

  1. He should try a new medication that targets a different neurotransmitter

  2. His dose needs to be adjusted

  3. It takes time to induce changes at the place where neurotransmitters are released

  4. It takes time for the body to realize there has been a change in the amount of neurotransmitters present

  5. It was working but he doesn’t want to be happy

While doing research between year 1 and 2 like a good little OMS, you discover a particular disease associated preganglionic sympathetic neurons which are unable to release their neurotransmitter due to a defect in their voltage gated calcium channels. Which type of voltage gated calcium channels would these be?

  1. L Type

  2. P Type

  3. N Type

  4. R Type

  5. T Type

While doing research between year 1 and 2 like a good little OMS, you discover a particular disease associated preganglionic sympathetic neurons which are unable to release their neurotransmitter due to a defect in the alpha helix associated with calcium sensation which triggers exocytosis. Which alpha helix protein would this be?

  1. Synaptobrevin

  2. Syntaxin

  3. SNAP-25

  4. Synaptotagmin

  5. All of the above

Your attending presents you with a case, the patient cannot fire action potentials down their neurons, and it is discovered that they are not releasing neurotransmitters from their synaptic vesicles. Luckily, you have the answer, and can tell your attending that

  1. Chloride ion channels are not opening in the cell body of the neuron, so the action potential is not powerful enough to stimulate neurotransmitter release

  2. Calcium is not binding synaptotagmin on the vesicle, so it does not migrate to the membrane to release neurotransmitters

  3. Calcium ion channels are releasing too much calcium into the neuron, depolarizing it to such an extent that it terminates the action potential, so no neurotransmitter is released

  4. Graded potentials are the summation of EPSPs and IPSPs, and too many Na+ channels are being opened which inhibit the release of neurotransmitters

  5. V-SNARES and T-SNARES are reacting with one another so no neurotransmitters are being released

Maria comes to the ER with glutamate excitotoxicity, which means too much calcium is being released, damaging her cells and their organelles. What else is happening to Maria?

  1. Sodium channels are opening so fast that too much Na+ is being released too

  2. Alpha-Ketoglutarate is also making excess glutamate through anapleurotic reactions

  3. Free radicals are being produced destabilizing the cell membranes

  4. Too much GABA is also being released in the brain

  5. Excess dopamine is being released causing risk for parkinson’s disease

Which type of summation must there be if there are both EPSPs and IPSPs being added together?

  1. Spatial

  2. Temporal

  3. Can be either spatial or temporal

  4. Has to be both spatial and temporal

  5. Its actually subtraction not summation

Which of the following excitatory neurotransmitters is both ionotropic and metabotropic?

  1. Acetylcholine

  2. Glutamate

  3. Catecholamines

  4. Serotonin

  5. Histamine

After studying Dr. Hensley’s lectures over and over again, over time you begin to recall the information with greater ease. What concept of neuronal plasticity that he taught you about applies to this?

  1. Neuronal Fatigue

  2. Post-tetanic Facilitation

  3. Long-term Potentiation (LTP)

  4. Long-term Depression (LTD)

  5. Glutamate excitotoxicity

In order to fulfill your dream of saying “fuck it” quitting your future job and running away rich on a yacht, you decide to go into the pharmaceutical game and attempt to create a new Alzheimer’s disease first line therapy. What type of drug is this likely to be?

  1. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

  2. Beta Blockers

  3. Glutamate metabotropic inhibitors

  4. Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor

  5. Dopamine agonist

Which of the following Parkinson’s medication is designed to facilitate the replacement of Dopamine?

  1. Resagiline

  2. Sinemet

  3. Tolcapone

  4. Selegiline 

  5. Eltacapone

The most common excitatory neurotransmitter is 

  1. A. Acetylcholine

  2. —>B. Glutamate

  3. C. Glutamine

  4. D. Serotonin

  5. E. Histamine

Glutamate excitotoxicity is a major concern for stroke victims and those suffering from chronic neuronal degradation. What does this process involve?

  1. A. Selective channels malfunctioning

  2. B. Toxic buildup of glutamate in brain cells

  3. —> C. No selective channels such as NMDA allowing too much Calcium build up in the cell

  4. D. Too much glutamate converting to glutamine in the astrocytes

  5. E. The presynaptic cell can no longer convert glutamine into glutamate

Inhibitory synapses are a type of synaptic potential that makes a synaptic neuron less likely to generate an action potential. These synapses are mediated through

  1. —> A. Ligand gated chloride channels that hyperpolarize the membrane

  2. B. Ligand gated chloride channels that depolarize the membrane

  3. C. Voltage gated calcium channels that hyperpolarize the membrane

  4. D. Voltage gated calcium channels that depolarize the membrane

  5. E. Voltage gated chloride channels that depolarize the membrane

John presents in the clinic with symptoms of post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), this is a change in which of the following

  1. Neuronal plasticity

  2. Excess GABA release

  3. Long Term Depression

  4. Excess Glutamate Release

  5. Neuronal Fatigue

 

Autonomic Physiology

 Which of the following adrenergic receptor types would you attempt to stimulate in order to get an over decrease of the sympathetic nervous system response?

  1. Alpha-1

  2. Alpha-2

  3. Beta-1

  4. Beta-2

  5. Beta-3

Metabolic Fuel Sources in the Fed & Fasting States

 Barbara recently started the Adkins diet which means that she is limiting her carbohydrate intake and increasing her protein. Which of the following would you expect to see one hour after she ate dinner?

  1. Big spike in glucagon

  2. Big drop in glucagon

  3. Big spike in insulin

  4. Big drop in insulin

  5. Big spike in glucose

Which of the following GLUT receptors will always be active regardless of a persons external carbohydrate consumption?

  1. GLUT 1

  2. GLUT 2

  3. GLUT 3

  4. GLUT 4

  5. GLUT 5

Similar to how red blood cells will only ever run on glucose regardless of fed or fasting states, which tissues will run on fatty acids regardless?

  1. Liver

  2. Skeletal Muscle

  3. Cardiac Muscle

  4. Adipose

  5. Brain

Which of the following compounds will never be used in gluconeogenesis to make glucose (barring 15 step exceptions)?

  1. Glycerol

  2. Lactate

  3. Pyruvate

  4. Acetyl CoA

  5. Amino Acids

Which of the following compounds activates AMPK in order to inhibit fatty acid synthesis?

  1. Insulin

  2. Glucagon

  3. Citrate

  4. Palmitoyl CoA

  5. Low Energy Levels

Which of the following drugs may be given to a type 2 diabetic (NIDDM) in order to increase endogenous insulin production and release?

  1. Insulin

  2. Glucagon

  3. Somatostatin

  4. Sulfonylureas

  5. Beta agonists

If Endoplasmic Reticulum get damaged, and you cannot release Calcium in the cell, which of the following receptors are affected, and cannot perform their function?

  1. Glut 1

  2. Glut 2

  3. Glut 3

  4. Glut 4

  5. Glut 5

 

Glycolysis and PDH

 Which of the following steps of glycolysis is the most highly regulated?

  1. Phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

  2. Cleavage of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to DHAP and glycine-3-phosphate

  3. Interconversion of DHAP and glycine-3-phosphate

  4. Conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate and generation of ATP

  5. Dehydration of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate

Which of the following is going to create the least amount of ATP?

  1. Liver tissues

  2. Brain tissues

  3. Kidney tissues

  4. Red blood cells

  5. Heart tissues

Which of the following is NOT used as a cofactor of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

  1. Thiamine pyrophosphate

  2. ATP

  3. Lipolate

  4. FAD

  5. NAD+

Which of the following correctly matches the coenzyme to the vitamin?

  1. Thiamine pyrophosphate: octanoic acid

  2. Lipoate: B5

  3. FAD: B2

  4. NAD: B5

  5. CoA: B3

Which of the following enzymes is regulated in the liver only?

  1. Hexokinase 

  2. Glucokinase 

  3. Phosphofructokinase 1

  4. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate mutase

  5. Pyruvate Kinase

Which amino acid can be directly converted from and back to pyruvate and is thus an allosteric regulator of pyruvate kinase?

  1. Aspartic Acid

  2. Asparagine

  3. Alanine

  4. Glutamate

  5. Glutamine

Which of the following is able to convert the NADH produced in glycolysis into another high energy electron carrier without the loss of potential ATP?

  1. Glycerol 3P Shuttle

  2. Malate-Aspartate shuttle

  3. Lactate Dehydrogenase

  4. The Citric Acid Cycle

  5. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate shuttle

Which of the following is not a vitamin cofactor for the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

  1. TPP

  2. Lipoate

  3. Folate

  4. CoA

  5. NAD+

TCA Cycle and Anaplerotic Reactions

 Pyruvate carboxylase (PC) deficiency is a rare disorder that can cause developmental delay and failure to thrive starting in the neonatal or early infantile period. Which of the following amino acids would you expect to be low in a patient who has pyruvate carboxylase deficiency?

  1. Argranine

  2. Asparagine

  3. Glutamine

  4. Tyrosine 

  5. Histidine 

Oxaloacetate is a critical TCA intermediate necessary for the continuation of the Kreb’s cycle along with other vital metabolic processes like gluconeogenesis. If the Krebs cycle were to be low in Succinyl-CoA, which anapluerotic amino acid could feed into and supply this deficient TCA intermediate?

  1. Asparagine

  2. Methionine

  3. Aspartate

  4. Glutamate

  5. Phenylalanine

Anapleurotic reactions are vital in restoring and providing additional TCA intermediates in order to run the Kreb’s cycle when other key substrates are limiting. Which of the following major anapleurotic reactions is both ATP dependent and requires Vitamin B7?

  1. Glutamate to 𝜶-ketoglutarate by glutamate dehydrogenase.

  2. Aspartate to oxaloacetate by aspartate transaminase.

  3. Pyruvate to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxykinase.

  4. Methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA by methylmalonyl CoA mutase.

  5. Pyruvate to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase.

The oxidation of Succinate to Fumarate in step 6 of the TCA cycle is catalyzed by Complex-II of the ETC, Succinate dehydrogenase, which requires the reduction of its prosthetic group to carry out its enzymatic activity. Which of the following substrates strongly inhibits the conversion of Succinate to Fumarate?

  1. Succinyl CoA

  2. Citrate

  3. Malonate

  4. Isocitrate

  5. Methionine

Methyl Malonic Aciduria (MMA) is a genetic deficiency characterized by excessive methyl malonic acid which gets excreted in the urine while also inhibiting succinate dehydrogenase. Deficiency in which vitamin would mimic these conditions?

  1. Thiamine

  2. Riboflavin

  3. Niacin

  4. Folate

  5. Cobalamin 


Which of the following below correctly matches the TCA cycle associated enzyme with its essential cofactor?

  1. Pyruvate carboxylase; Niacin

  2. Ɑ-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; Thiamine 

  3. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex; Riboflavin

  4. Succinate Dehydrogenase; Biotin

  5. Isocitrate Dehydrogenase; Lipoic Acid


Deficiency in which of the following vitamins would lead to nerve and brain damage?

  1. B2

  2. B3

  3. B6

  4. B7

  5. B12


You just received Sally’s blood work and realize she is B12 deficient, which of the following would you expect to be elevated

  1. Methionine

  2. Riboflavin

  3. Oxidized Glutathione

  4. Glucose-6-phosphate

  5. Hydrogen Peroxide

 

ETC, Oxygen Reduction, and Redox Biochemistry

 Sheryl suffers from a Vitamin B12 deficiency. This results in low energy, nerve damage and anemia. Which of the following explains why Sheryl feels fatigued?

  1. The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of methylfolate which acts on complex III of ETC

  2. The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of fumarate which acts on complex II of ETC

  3. The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of succinate which acts on complex II of ETC

  4. The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of MPP+ which acts on complex I of ETC

  5. The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of homocysteine which forms glutathione causing a buildup of Reactive oxygen species

Which of the following ETC Complexes is matched correctly with its inhibitor?

  1. Complex 1 – malonate

  2. Complex 1 – barbiturates

  3. Complex 2 – Cyanide

  4. Complex 3 – carbon monoxide

  5. Complex 4 – antimycin A

In hemochromatosis there is a metal build up of Iron which can generate excessive reactive oxygen species through which of the following mechanisms?

  1. NOX Enzymes

  2. iNOS/NOS-II

  3. Cyclooxygenase

  4. ETC Complex 1 &3

  5. Fenton Chemistry/Reactions

Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is an enzyme that converts Arginine and oxygen into citrulline, water and nitric oxide. Which of the following forms is found in neuronal cells?

  1. NOS 1

  2. NOS 2

  3. NOS 3

  4. eNOS

  5. iNOS

After a lipid peroxide undergoes hock-cleavage and oxidation it will create 4-hydroxynonenal (HNE) which can crosslink proteins and lipids. However, if HNE combines with certain amino acids it will become a protein adduct (aldehyde form) which can mutate DNA. Which of the following amino acids can HNE react with to create the protein adduct?

  1. Leucine

  2. Lysine

  3. Aspartate

  4. Glutamate

  5. Glycine

Which of the following is most reactive oxygen radical?

  1. Superoxide radical anion

  2. Hydrogen Peroxide

  3. Hydroxyl Radical

  4. Cyanide

  5. Peroxynitrite

Which of the following is an example of a direct radical scavenger?

  1. Superoxide Dismutase

  2. Catalase

  3. Glutathione Peroxidase

  4. Vitamin E

  5. Vitamin C

Which cellular reductant is responsible for maintaining the reducing environment of the cytosol?

  1. NADH

  2. NADPH

  3. FADH2

  4. Glutathione (GSH)

  5. All of the above

Which enzyme is responsible for converting hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen?

  1. Superoxide Dismutase

  2. Catalase

  3. Glutathione Peroxidase

  4. Nitric Oxide Synthase

  5. Glutathione Reductase

Gluconeogenesis & Glycogen Metabolism

 Which of the following best explains how β-oxidation of FAs during fasting results in a shift towards Gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes?

  1. Acetyl CoA accumulation drives its reduction to Pyruvate by Pyruvate Carboxylase 

  2. Acetyl CoA accumulation activates PDH phosphatase

  3. Acetyl CoA accumulation drives the oxidation of Pyruvate by PDHC

  4. Acetyl CoA accumulation activates PDH kinase

  5. Acetyl CoA accumulation inactivates Pyruvate Carboxylase

Which of the following would serve as the best Gluconeogenic precursor?

  1. Lysine

  2. Acetoacetate

  3. Leucine

  4. 𝛼-ketoglutarate

  5. Acetyl CoA

Which of the following statements  accurately describes an event or events that occur in Glycogenolysis?

  1. When Debranching Enzyme encounters a limit dextrin, all 4 glycosyl units from the limiting branch are first removed and then added to the linear chain via 𝞪(1-4) glycosidic bonds.

  2. Glycogenolysis results in the direct release of both Glucose-1-phosphate and free Glucose from Glycogen.

  3. Glycogen Phosphorylase possesses both 𝞪(1-4) and 𝞪(1-6) glucosidase activity.

  4. Although lacking 𝞪(1-6) glucosidase activity, Debranching Enzyme can both break and reform 𝞪(1-4) glycosidic bonds in Glycogen. 

  5. A and D

Henry got lost while hiking in the woods three days ago. His glycogen stores were depleted after about one day. Which of the following organs is helping him to create glucose?

  1. Liver

  2. Muscle 

  3. Kidney

  4. A and B

  5. A and C

Which of the following states the correct role of Fructose-2,6-Bisphosphate?

  1. Conversion of Fructose-6P to Fructose-1,6BP

  2. Conversion of Fructose 1,6BP to Fructose 6P

  3. Ensuring that glycolysis is unidirectional

  4. Ensuring that gluconeogenesis is unidirectional

  5. Ensuring that gluconeogenesis and glycolysis do not occur at the same time

Which of the following is not involved in the degradation of glycogen?

  1. Insulin

  2. Glucagon

  3. Glycogen phosphorylase

  4. Glycogen phosphorylase kinase

  5. Protein kinase A

 

Cell Death and Differentiation

 Which of the following is the “master” switch which causes cells to stay in an undifferentiated state?

  1. Wnt

  2. B-cat

  3. Groucho

  4. APC

  5. TCF

Organization of the Genome, Replication, Mutation, & Repair

Regulation of Gene Expression

Prokaryotic Genetics

Cell Cycle

Chromosomal Abnormalities

Inheritance Patterns & Human Disease 

Epigenetics and Genomic Imprinting

Skeletal Muscle Physiology

Smooth Muscle Physiology

Cardiac Muscle Physiology

Biochemical Composition of Skin

Amino Acid Metabolism

RBC Dynamics

Synthesis & Catabolism of Porphyrins

Iron Metabolism

General Blood Histology & Hematopoiesis 

Anatomy of the Immune System

Cells of the Immune System

Antigen Recognition

Antigen Presentation

Inflammation